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NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 66

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 66

Questions 1. Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An example is:A) thyroxine to treat thyroid cancer.B) ACTH to treat adrenal carcinoma.C) estrogen antagonists to treat breast cancer.D) glucagon to treat pancreatic carcinoma.2. Some drugs are excreted into bile and delivered to the intestines. Prior to elimination from the body, the drug might be absorbed. This process is known as:A) hepatic clearance.B) total clearance.C) enterohepatic cycling.D) first-pass effect.3. The intravenous route is potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration because:A) the IV might infiltrate.B) it is expensive and nursing intensive.C) rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity.D) the client always has more side effects.4. A complication of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is the development of cholestasis. What is this condition?A) an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ductsB) an arrest of the normal flow of bileC) an inflammation of the gallbladderD) the formation of gallstones5. Which of the following attitudes is essential in a nurse who assists clients during crises?A) viewing crisis intervention as the first step in solving bigger problemsB) wanting to help clients solve all problems identifiedC) taking an active role in guiding the processD) feeling that work requires identification with all of a client - s problems Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Estrogen antagonists are used to treat estrogen hormone-dependent cancer, such as breast carcinoma. A wellknown estrogen antagonist used in breast cancer therapy is Tamoxifen (Nolvadex). This drug, in combination with surgery and other chemotherapeutic drugs, reduces breast cancer recurrence by 30%. Estrogen antagonists can also be administered to prevent breast cancer in women who have a strong family history of the disease. Thyroxine is a natural thyroid hormone.It does not treat thyroid cancer. ACTH is an anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the adrenal glands to release glucocorticoids; it does not treat adrenal cancer. Glucagon is a pancreatic alpha cell hormone that stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; it does not treat pancreatic cancer. PharmacologicalTherapies2. Right Answer: CExplanation: Drugs and drug metabolites with molecular weights higher than 300 can be excreted via the bile, stored in the gallbladder, delivered to the intestines by the bile duct, and then reabsorbed into the circulation. This process reduces the elimination of drugs and prolongs their half-life and duration of action in the body. Choice1 is the amount of drug eliminated by the liver. Choice 2 is the sum of all types of clearance including renal, hepatic, and respiratory. Choice 4 is the amount of drug absorbed from the GI tract, then metabolized by the liver (reducing the amount of drug that makes it into circulation). Pharmacological Therapies3. Right Answer: CExplanation: The bioavailability of the injected medication is 100% and might lead to toxicity. An IV infiltration can cause serious problems with tissue necrosis, but this is not life threatening. Expensive and time consuming do not equate with dangerous. Choice 4 is not always true. Pharmacological Therapies4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Cholestasis due to TPN administration is an intrahepatic process that interrupts the normal flow of bile. Extrahepatic bile duct inflammation is cholangitis.Inflammation of the gallbladder is cholecystitis. Gallstones are formed by bile components. Pharmacological Therapies5. Right Answer: AExplanation: Viewing crisis intervention as the first step in solving bigger problems is essential in a nurse who assists clients during crises. Assessment of the present problem should be viewed as necessary. Time and limitations of crisis work need to be remembered. Complete diagnostic assessment is unnecessary, and unrelated material should not be explored. Referrals might be necessary for other identified problems. Psychosocial Integrity .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 67

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 67

Questions 1. The nurse is working with families who have been displaced by a fire in an apartment complex. What is the priority intervention during the initial assessment?A) Provide a liaison to meet housing needs.B) Attentively listen when clients describe their feelings.C) Offer nurturing support for clients who are confused by the events.D) Provide structure for clients exhibiting moderate to severe anxiety.2. The nurse suspects an elderly client has been the victim of abuse. The client denies abuse and declines assistance. The nurse - s next action should be to:A) do nothing; the client has the right to refuse treatment.B) report the incident to the police.C) arrange an appointment with the client - s next of kin.D) educate the client about available services.3. When questioning an elder about suspected abuse, the nurse should keep the questions:A) nonjudgmental.B) probing.C) confrontational.D) indirect.4. The primary organ for drug elimination is the:A) skin.B) lung(s).C) kidney(s).D) liver.5. A 50 milliliter (ml) bolus of normal saline fluid is ordered by the physician. The physician wants it to infuse in 30 minutes. The nurse should set the pump rate at:A) 100 ml per hour for one hour.B) 60 ml per hour for one-half hour.C) 120 ml per hour for one hour.D) 50 ml per hour for one hour. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: After physical needs of housing, clothing and food are met, the nurse should focus on assisting clients to manage the psychological effects of loss. PsychosocialIntegrity2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Although clients do have the right to refuse treatment, the nurse should remain nonjudgmental and inform the client of available services. Frequently elders are not aware of existing programs. Psychosocial Integrity3. Right Answer: AExplanation: Questions about suspected should be direct and nonconfrontational. Indirect questions encourage denial. Psychosocial Integrity4. Right Answer: CExplanation: Most drugs are excreted in the urine, either as the parent compound or as drug metabolites. Relatively few drugs are excreted in sweat. Some volatile gases are excreted with expiration. The liver primarily metabolizes drugs. Some of them are excreted in bile, especially those with a molecular weight above 300.Pharmacological Therapies5. Right Answer: AExplanation: One hundred ml in one hour equals 50 ml in 30 minutes, which is what the physician prescribed. Choice 2 is 10 ml more than the physician prescribed for 30 minutes. Choice 3 is the same as Choice 2; it is 10 ml more than the physician prescribed for 30 minutes. Choice 4 only provides 25 ml over 30 minutes, or half the volume prescribed. Pharmacological Therapies .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 68

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 68

Questions 1. Carrying a donor card for organ donation means that:A) medical care is altered in the event of serious injuries to get organs for donation.B) the family or legally responsible party of a client has no decision-making authority in the event that the client is considered for organ donation.C) a client is allowed to revoke his decision for organ donation at any time.D) a client is considered an organ donor for only one organ or tissue.2. Referral for client education in the community can be accomplished through all of the following except:A) community agencies such as the American Heart Association.B) parish nurses.C) home health care agencies.D) unlicensed massage therapists.3. The tendency of a drug to combine with its receptor is called:A) potency.B) efficacy.C) kinetics.D) affinity.4. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the drug of choice for thyroid replacement therapy in clients with hypothyroidism because:A) it is chemically stable, nonallergenic, and can be administered orally once a day.B) it is available in a single 25mg tablet, which makes dosing simple.C) it is not a prodrug.D) it has a short half-life.5. When medications have an additive, synergistic, or antagonistic effect on a tissue, a ________ reaction has occurred.A) pharmaceuticalB) pharmacodynamicC) pharmacokineticD) drug incompatibility Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Revocation of the decision for organ donation may occur at any time, by either the client or his responsible party. When organ donation is considered, as many organs as the donor wished to donate are considered and accepted for donation if found appropriate. Medical care for an individual during immediate care and/or resuscitation is not altered to declare a client dead and ready for organ donation. Coordinated Care2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Client education should be completed by an individual or individuals with acknowledged expertise in the subject area and credentials to support activity within the health care community. Coordinated Care3. Right Answer: DExplanation: Affinity is a close relationship, mutual attraction, or similarity. The tendency of a drug to combine with its receptor is called affinity. Affinity is a measure of the strength of the drug-receptor bonding. Choices 1 and 2 describe the capability of a drug to produce the desired effect. Choice 3 is the branch of science that deals with the effects of forces on the motions of material bodies or with changes in a physical or chemical system. Pharmacological Therapies4. Right Answer: AExplanation: Levothyroxine is safe and effective with virtually no side effects when dosed properly. A single, daily dose is possible because of the long half-life (7 days).Levothyroxine tablets are available in a wide range of concentrations to meet individual client requirements. Levothyroxine (T4) is a prodrug of T3.Pharmacological Therapies5. Right Answer: BExplanation: Pharmacodynamics pertain to the effect of a drug on receptors. Pharmaceutical reactions are chemical reactions between drugs prior to administration or absorption. Pharmacokinetic reactions refer to the bodys effect on the drug. Drug incompatibilities are another term for pharmaceutical reactions.PharmacologicalTherapies .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 69

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 69

Questions 1. Local anesthetics block the conduction of pain impulses to the spinal cord. Their duration of action:A) is always longer than general anesthesia.B) is determined by the rate of diffusion and absorption at the site of administration.C) is usually short (10 minutes).D) varies, depending on the client - s weight.2. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)?A) a client with renal impairmentB) a client with hypertensionC) a client with diabetes mellitus, type IID) a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)3. Delegation of tasks to appropriate personnel allows the nurse to:A) take a break.B) keep other members of the team productive.C) maintain tight control of all aspects of the workflow.D) realize the importance of her role by making all decisions.4. Activities of effective supervisors can be taskrelated or people-related activities. An example of a task-related supervisory activity is:A) coaching.B) evaluating.C) delegating.D) facilitating.5. What is the reason for a contract between nurse and client?A) Contracts state the roles the participants take.B) Contracts are indicative of the feeling tone established between participants.C) Contracts are binding and prevent either party from ending the relationship prematurely.D) Contracts spell out the participation and responsibilities of both parties. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: Diffusion and absorption depend on the chemical properties of the anesthetic and other factors such as local pH and blood flow. Duration might or might not be longer than general anesthesia. Duration can be short if the type of local anesthetic is a short-acting agent. Client weight is not a factor. PharmacologicalTherapies2. Right Answer: CExplanation: The thiazide class of diuretics cause metabolic abnormalities such as elevated blood glucose levels. This elevation is caused in part by diuretic-induced potassium deficiency. Hypokalemia reduces the secretion of insulin by pancreatic beta cells, thereby increasing plasma glucose levels. Thiazides have been used for many years in clients with the conditions described in choices 1 and 2. Thiazides decrease calcium excretion, thus decreasing the likelihood of renal calculi.Pharmacological Therapies3. Right Answer: BExplanation: Maintaining the productivity of all team members by delegating tasks appropriate to the job descriptions of the personnel increases work effectiveness and efficiency. Coordinated Care4. Right Answer: CExplanation: Delegating is the act (or task) of assigning work to those that are capable and competent to do the work. Coaching, evaluating, and facilitating are supervisory activities that are people related. Coordinated Care5. Right Answer: DExplanation: A contract emphasizes that the nurse works with the client, rather than doing something for the client.Working withsuggests that each party is expected to participate and share responsibility for outcomes. Contracts do not,however, stipulate roles or feeling tone, nor is premature termination expressly forbidden.Psychosocial Integrity .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 70

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 70

Questions 1. The nurse can best communicate to a client that he or she has been listening by:A) restating the main feeling or thought the client has expressed.B) making a judgment about the client - s problem.C) offering a leading question such as, 'And then what happened?'D) saying, 'I understand what you - re saying.'2. In the United States, several definitions of death are currently being used. The definition that uses apnea testing and pupillary responses to light is termed:A) whole brain death.B) heart-lung death.C) circulatory death.D) higher brain death.3. The nurse is caring for a dying client who has persistently requested that the nurse 'help her to die and be in peace.' According to the Code of Ethics for Nurses, the nurse should:A) Ask the client whether she has signed the advance directives document.B) Tell the client that he or she will ask another nurse to care for her.C) Instruct the client that only a physician can legally assist a suicide.D) Try to make the client as comfortable as possible, but refuse to assist in death.4. When caring for a Native-American family, the nurse needs to consider which of the following?A) The family consists solely of the parents and children.B) Native Americans tend to be future oriented.C) Some Native Americans use herbs and psychologic treatment of illnesses.D) Health care is usually prescribed by a medicine man (shaman).5. The three universal spiritual needs include all of the following except:A) meaning and purpose.B) love and relatedness.C) forgiveness.D) God - s permission. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: Restating allows the client to validate the nurses understanding of what has been communicated. Its an active listening technique. Regarding Choice 2, judgments should be suspended in a nurse-client relationship. Choice 3 is incorrect because leading questions ask for more information rather than showing understanding. Choice 4 communicates understanding, but the client has no way of measuring the understanding. PsychosocialIntegrity2. Right Answer: AExplanation: Most protocols require two separate clinical examinations, including induction of painful stimuli, papillary responses to light, oculovestibular testing, and apnea testing. Choices 2 and 4 have no specific test required. Choice 3 is not a current definition of death in the United States. Psychosocial Integrity3. Right Answer: DExplanation: Try to make the client as comfortable as possible but refuse to assist in death. One of the competencies necessary for nurses to have in giving high quality care to clients/families during the end of life care is: apply legal and ethical principles in the analysis of complex issues and end-of-life care, recognizing the influence of personal values, profession codes, and client preferences. Psychosocial Integrity4. Right Answer: CExplanation: Symbols of health or traditions might include certain ritualistic items that are used to maintain, protect, or restore physical, mental, or spiritual health. PsychosocialIntegrity5. Right Answer: DExplanation: Religious teachings help to present a meaningful philosophy and system of practices within a system of social controls having specific values, norms, and ethics.God is the center of many religions (major), but not all. Psychosocial Integrity .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 71

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 71

Questions 1. Acute hyphema is associated with what type of injury?A) orthopedicB) eyeC) insect sting or snakebiteD) gynecological trauma2. A client has sustained a hyphema. What intervention should the nurse take?A) Have the client wear ear protectors in the future.B) Keep the client at bed rest, typically with the head of the bed propped up.C) Apply atropine eye drops.D) Apply an ice pack to the site of injury.3. The nurse - s first action upon discovery of an electrical fire should be which of the following?A) Disconnect the electrical power if it can be performed safely.B) Smother the source with an object such as a blanket.C) Saturate the source with water or other readily available liquid.D) Activate the fire alarm immediately.4. A community health nurse is asked to organize a health promotion project that plans to provide glucose screening. This activity is most beneficial within what realm?A) testing that is performed by volunteers at a local department store and is open to the publicB) at a professional health fair activity available for selected persons who have been screened as being at riskC) mass-marketing vouchers for free fingersticks at a local drug store, where the pharmacist makes recommendations on the findingsD) testing that is performed by a nurse professional, who immediately provides education regarding the findings5. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:A) primary prevention.B) secondary prevention.C) tertiary prevention.D) disability prevention. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: An acute hyphema occurs as a result of a blunt injury to the eye and is manifested by a half-moon appearance or a horizontal line across the globe when the client is upright (due to blood collected in the anterior chamber). Safety and Infection Control2. Right Answer: BExplanation: Initial care of the client involves preventing further damage and rebleeding. Clients are kept at bed rest if possible, usually with the head of the bed raised. TV watching is permitted but not reading. The use of atropine, ice, and eye shields are controversial, and a nurse should not administer a pharmacologic agent or thermal therapy without a physicians order. Safety and Infection Control3. Right Answer: AExplanation: If it is safe to do so, the nurse should disconnect electrical devices from the power source. Smothering with a blanket is not indicated in an electrical fire and might serve to fuel the fire,just as water or other liquids might incite an explosion or flames. The fire alarm should be activated promptly, and this should be the next action after disconnecting the electrically powered equipment. Safety and Infection Control4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Public glucose screening has been found to be an ineffective way to screen for diabetes unless based on health risk screening for those persons identified to be at risk or displaying symptoms. Safety and Infection Control5. Right Answer: BExplanation: The three levels of prevention address disease and disability across all phases, from absence of disease and at risk for disease, to preventing further impairment.Hearing impairment associated with prematurity cannot be prevented by screening, but identifying the infants with hearing loss might prevent sequelae and further impairment by allowing early intervention. Safety and Infection Control .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 72

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 72

Questions 1. The nurse is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client. Which of the following nursing actions should be taken first?A) performing a physical assessment prior to administrationB) obtaining the most recent lab values regarding renal functionC) reviewing peaks and troughs for the past few daysD) ensuring the client is not allergic to the medication2. The orientation nurse educator reviewing the biohazard legend with a class of new employees states that the emblem is affixed to containers whenever:A) there is presence of blood and body fluids.B) there is the need for droplet precaution.C) there is contact isolation.D) there is the potential for airborne transmission.3. The emergency triage nurse should perform which action upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting?A) Place the client in the waiting room until an available cubicle is open.B) Seclude the client from other clients and visitors.C) Perform no intervention because it might not be necessary until tests confirm a disease.D) Don gown, gloves, and mask immediately.4. Which of the following clients require airborne precautions?A) a client with fever, chills, vomiting, and diarrheaB) a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox)C) a client with abdominal pain and purpuraD) a client diagnosed with AIDS5. A stool culture reveals Shigella. What corollary should the nurse recognize regarding this bacterial infection?A) People who have been in contact with the client need to be tested.B) Shigella is an airborne infection.C) Shigella is a bacteria sometimes found in stagnant water.D) The nurse should wear a one-way breathing apparatus when giving client care. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: Even before the physical assessment (which might or might not be indicated at the time of administration of Vancomycin), ensuring that the client is not allergic to the medication is the most critical action the nurse must take before administering any drug. Lab values regarding renal functioning and therapeutic ranges via peaks and troughs are also important with some medications such as Vancomycin because renal damage can occur if blood drug levels remain high over time.Safety and Infection Control2. Right Answer: AExplanation: When body substances are handled, the potential for transmission is increased; therefore, federal regulations require warning labels to communicate with other employees and/or waste collectors. The biohazard alert is a three-ring symbol overlaying a central concentric ring. Blood, drainage from wounds, feces, and urine are all body fluids that can transfer infection and disease to others. Safety and Infection Control3. Right Answer: BExplanation: The client is describing signs and symptoms of tuberculosis. The client is potentially infectious to others and should be secluded. A respirator mask should be worn by caregivers, but it is not necessary for the nurse to don a gown and gloves. If the client is moved to other areas such as radiology, a mask should be worn by the client and a respirator mask should be worn by those working in close contact with the client. Safety and Infection Control4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Chickenpox (varicella) is an acute, infectious, airborne illness that requires others in direct contact to wear a respirator mask. Safety and Infection Control5. Right Answer: CExplanation: Shigella is a bacteria sometimes found in stagnant water. Transmission of Shigella is typically oral-fecal, so good hand washing and the use of gloves are the best means of prevention when caring for a client with Shigella. The bacteria can be found in food and water contaminated by fecal material. Incidences of Shigella are reportable in many states. Safety and Infection Control .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 73

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 73

Questions 1. A client asks the nurse what risk factors increase the changes of getting skin cancer. The risk factors include all except:A) light or fair complexion.B) exposure to sun for great periods of time.C) certain diet and foods.D) history of bad sunburns.2. To improve overall health, the nurse should place highest priority on assisting a client to make lifestyle changes for which of the following habits?A) drinking a six-pack of beer each dayB) eating an occasional chocolate barC) exercising twice a weekD) using relaxation exercises to deal with stress3. The gag reflex test assesses which cranial nerves?A) IX and XB) V and VIIC) IX and XIID) V and X4. How many temporary teeth should the nurse expect to find in a 5-year-old client - s mouth?A) up to 10B) up to 15C) up to 20D) up to 325. When assessing a client with early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness and which of the following symptoms?A) warm, dry skinB) bradychardiaC) tachycardiaD) eupnea Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Conditions that increase risks for skin cancer are: light or fair complexion, history of having bad sunburns or scars from previous burns, personal or family history of skin cancer, frequently working or playing outdoors with exposure to the sun, exposure to X-rays or radiation, exposure to certain chemicals through work or hobbies (coal, pitch, asphalt, petroleum), repeated trauma or injury to an area resulting in scars, older than age 50, male gender, and living in a geographic location near the equator or at high altitudes. Ways to prevent skin cancer are avoiding exposure to the sun, wearing a hat to protect the face, avoiding all sun lamps, and using a sunscreen with a minimum of 15 sun protection factor (SPF) if exposure to the sun is unavoidable. Teaching clients how to recognize a potential problem involves inspecting the skin frequently; noting all birthmarks, freckles, and moles; and seeking medical assistance if any of the following are noted: change in color, change in shape, change in surface texture, change in size, change in the surrounding skin, or a new mole or a sore that does not heal.Health Promotion and Maintenance2. Right Answer: AExplanation: Health promotion is motivated by the desire to increase peoples well-being and health potential. The nurse promotes health by maximizing the clients own strengths. Identification and analysis of the clients strengths are a component of preventing illness, restoring health, and facilitating coping with disability or death.The nurse facilitates decisions about lifestyle that enhance ones quality of life and encourage acceptance of responsibility for ones own health. Health Promotion and Maintenance3. Right Answer: AExplanation: Gagging during the gag reflex test indicates that cranial nerves IX and X (the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves) are intact. Health Promotion and Maintenance4. Right Answer: CExplanation: A child can have up to 20 temporary (deciduous or baby) teeth. The first tooth usually erupts by age 6 months and the last by age 30 months. All temporary teeth usually are shed between 6 and 13 years of age. Preventionand Early Detection of Disease5. Right Answer: CExplanation: The cardinal signs of respiratory problems and hypoxia are restlessness, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and cool skin.Bradycardia might occur much later in the process when the condition is severe. Eupnea is normal respirations in rate and depth. Physiological Adaptation .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 74

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 74

Questions 1. One day postoperative, the client complains of dyspnea, and his respiratory rate (RR) is 35, slightly labored, and there are no breath sounds in the lower-right base. The nurse should suspect:A) cor pulmonale.B) atelectasis.C) pulmonary embolus.D) cardiac tamponade.2. Which of the following needs immediate medical attention and emergency intervention? The client who:A) complains of sharp pain upon taking a deep breath and excessive coughing.B) exhibits yellow, productive sputum, lowgrade fever, and crackles.C) has a shift of the trachea to the left, with no breath sounds on the right.D) has asthma and complains of an inability to catch her breath after exercise.3. Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of a client with cancer of the lungs?A) exertional dyspneaB) persistent changing coughC) air hunger; dyspneaD) cough with night sweats4. A neighbor telephones the nurse to tell her that her child has erythema infectiosum and asks for information. The nurse knows that another name for the disorder is:A) Kawasaki disease.B) rheumatic disease.C) lupus erythematosus.D) fifth disease.5. The nurse teaching a client about hepatitis and its transmission should explain that one type of hepatitis does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase.Which type is it?A) hepatitis AB) hepatitis BC) hepatitis CD) hepatitis D Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: The first three symptoms could be indicative of any of the conditions. The distinguishing symptom is the lack of breath sounds in the lower-right base, which is assessed when a portion of the lung has collapsed. Physiological Adaptation2. Right Answer: CExplanation: Choice 3 is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is considered a medical emergency. The respiratory system is severely compromised and venous return to the heart is affected. The mediastinal shift is to the unaffected side. Choice 1 contains symptoms of pleurisy, and Choice 2 lists symptoms of bronchitis. Neither are emergencies. The client in Choice 4 should expect difficulty breathing after exercise when asthma is an existing condition and might need immediate attention if his rescue inhaler is ineffective. Physiological Adaptation3. Right Answer: BExplanation: The most common sign of cancer of the lung is a persistent cough that changes. Other signs are dyspnea, bloody sputum, and long-term pulmonary infection.Choice 1 is common with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Choice 3 is common with asthma. Choice 4 is common with tuberculosis. PhysiologicalAdaptation4. Right Answer: DExplanation: The child has Fifth disease, a parvovirus flulike illness that is self-limiting but is contagious for twothree weeks. Safety and Infection Control5. Right Answer: AExplanation: Hepatitis A does not produce a carrier state. It is transmitted via contaminated water or food via the oral-fecal route and is not blood borne. Safety and InfectionControl .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

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HR all events, conferences in 2023
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