Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 41
Questions 1. Appropriate nursing strategies to assist a client in maintaining a sense of self include:A) using the client - s first name when addressing the client.B) treating the client with dignity.C) explaining procedures only if the client is attentive.D) discouraging the use of personal items.2. A client with Parkinson - s disease has difficulty performing voluntary movements. This is known as:A) akinesia.B) dyskinesia.C) chorea.D) dystonia.3. A client who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson - s disease and beginning medication therapy asks the nurse, 'How soon will I see improvement?' The nurse - s best response is:A) 'That varies from client to client.'B) 'You should discuss that with your physician.'C) 'You should notice a difference in a few days.'D) 'It might take several weeks before you notice improvement.'4. A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus needs education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in this education?A) 'You can eat anything you want, but no foods with sugar.'B) 'You need to lose weight, so your diet must be a restricted one.'C) 'You need a diet and exercise program.'D) 'You must eliminate all salt, fat, and sugar from your diet.'5. A client, age 28, is 8 1â?2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?A) vitiligoB) erythemaC) cyanosisD) chloasma Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: All clients must be treated with dignity. Rather than a strategy, treating clients with dignity is a basic core value universal to nursing. Psychosocial Integrity2. Right Answer: BExplanation: Dyskinesia is an impairment of the ability to execute voluntary muscles. Physiological Adaptation3. Right Answer: DExplanation: It might take several weeks of therapy for the client with Parkinsons disease to see improvement in symptoms. Choice 1 is also true but is not the best response to the question. Choice 2 might be indicated but is not the best response to the question. Choice 3 is incorrect. Physiological Adaptation4. Right Answer: CExplanation: A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus needs teaching about diet and exercise. Physiological Adaptation5. Right Answer: DExplanation: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes.Health Promotion and Maintenance .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 42
Questions 1. Which instruction should be given in a health education class regarding testicular cancer?A) All males should perform a testicular exam after the age of 30.B) Testicular exams should be performed on a daily basis.C) Reddening or darkening of the scrotum is a normal finding.D) Testicular exams should be performed after a warm bath or shower.2. Regardless of their practice area, nurses should be concerned with:A) all drug-resistant bacteria.B) microorganisms that are critical.C) transmission of microorganisms.D) overprescription of bacteriostatic drugs.3. An Rh-negative woman with previous sensitization has delivered an Rh-positive fetus. Which of the following nursing actions should be included in the clients care plan?A) emotional support to help the family deal with feelings of guilt about the infant - s conditionB) administration of MICRhoGam to the woman within 72 hours of deliveryC) administration of Rh-immune globulin to the newborn within 1 hour of deliveryD) lab analysis of maternal Direct Coombs - test4. The nurse is caring for a postpartum woman who has relinquished her baby for adoption. The care plan for the client should include which of the following priority strategies?A) Make a referral for grief counseling.B) Allow the woman to see her baby initially, and then discourage further visits.C) Provide opportunities for the woman to express her feelings.D) Inform the woman she has the right to change her mind about relinquishment.5. Clients who take iron preparations should be warned of the possible side effects, which might include:A) dizziness and orthostatic hypotension.B) nausea, vomiting, diarrhea or constipation, and stomach cramps.C) drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue.D) neuropathy and tingling in the extremities. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: Testicular exams should be performed after a warm shower or bath to relax the scrotum. Testicular exams should be performed on a monthly basis by all men beginning at about age 15. Reddening or darkening of the scrotum is not normal finding and should be reported to a physician. Physiological Adaptation2. Right Answer: CExplanation: All nurses should be concerned with preventing the transmission of microorganisms to themselves as well as to others. One way to accomplish this goal is by asepsis. Nursing practice focuses on providing a safe and therapeutic environment to protect clients, family members, and health care providers from acquiring infections. Safety and Infection Control3. Right Answer: AExplanation: If a woman is sensitized to the Rh factor, it poses a threat to any Rh-positive fetus she delivers. The nurse needs to provide emotional support to help the family deal with the infants condition, which might involve a host of conditions that could lead to death or marked neurological damage. RhoGam is never given to a woman already sensitized. If not previously sensitized, MICRhoGam (a smaller dose of Rh immune globulin) is given after an abortion or ectopic pregnancy to prevent sensitization. If not sensitized, RhoGam is given to the woman within 72 hours of delivery. Rh-immune globulin is never given to the newborn. To determine if sensitization has occurred, an Indirect Coombs is drawn on the mother to measure the number of Rh-positive antibodies. Health Promotion andMaintenance4. Right Answer: CExplanation: Most women who relinquish their infants at birth have come to that decision with a great deal of love and pain. They have made plans in advance. The nurse needs to first provide them with opportunities to express their feelings that might include grief, loneliness, and guilt. A referral for grief counseling might be appropriate if no other support system exists or the mother indicates that she wants assistance working through her grief. If the nurse assesses that the grief process is abnormal, a referral is also appropriate. The mother has probably already made a decision about whether or not she wants to see her baby. The nurse should ask her and make arrangements for that to happen if the mother requests it. Seeing the baby might aid in the grief process. Until relinquishment occurs, this is the mothers baby and she should be allowed to see it as often as she wants. The mother does have the right to change her mind until final legal arrangements are made. But suggesting this option might lead her to think that the nurse believes she shouldnt relinquish her baby. Health Promotion andMaintenance5. Right Answer: BExplanation: Oral iron preparations are often used to treat clients who have iron deficiency anemia to regain a positive iron balance. These preparations need to be supplemented with adequate dietary intake of iron. It can take 23 weeks to see improvement and up to 610 months to return to a stable iron level after a deficiency exists. The most common adverse effects associated with oral iron intake are related to direct GI upset, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dark stools, and constipation. Nursing comfort measures include taking the preparations with meals, teaching about black stools, encouragement, and proper nutrition.Physiological Adaptation .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 43
Questions 1. What happens if folic acid is given to treat anemia without determining its underlying cause?A) Erythropoiesis is inhibited.B) Excessive levels of folic acid might accumulate, causing toxicity.C) The symptoms of pernicious anemia might be masked, delaying treatment.D) Intrinsic factor is destroyed.2. Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?A) Mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress.B) Take the iron with meals if GI distress occurs.C) Liquid forms should be taken with a straw to avoid discoloration of tooth enamel.D) Oral forms should be taken with juice, not milk.3. The test used to differentiate sickle cell trait from sickle cell disease is:A) sickle cell preparation.B) peripheral smear.C) sickledex.D) hemoglobin electrophoresis.4. While performing a physical assessment on a 6-month-old infant, the nurse observes head lag. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse perform first?A) Ask the parents to allow the infant to lay on her stomach to promote muscle development.B) Notify the physician because a developmental or neurological evaluation is indicated.C) Document the findings as normal in the nurse - s notes.D) Explain to the parents that their child is likely to be mentally retarded.5. A preschooler has successfully completed the test item 'counts 5 blocks' on the Denver II test. This pass is evidence of which of the following developmental concepts?A) centrationB) causalityC) nonreversibilityD) conservation Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Folic acid should not be used if pernicious anemia is suspected because it does not protect the client from CNS changes common to this type of anemia. Folic acid is usually given with Vitamin B12. Both are part of the Vitamin B complex and are essential for cell growth and division. Folic acid is sometimes used as a rescue drug for cells exposed to some toxic chemotherapeutic agents. The nature of the anemia must be confirmed to ensure that the proper drug regimen is being used. Physiological Adaptation2. Right Answer: AExplanation: Iron should not be mixed with antacids. Physiological Adaptation3. Right Answer: DExplanation: Hemoglobin electrophoresis is used to differentiate between sickle cell trait and sickle cell disease. Physiological Adaptation4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Head lag should be completely resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age indicates the need for further developmental or neurological evaluation. Laying the infant on her stomach promotes muscle development of the neck and shoulder muscles, but because of the age of this child, a referral should be the first action. These findings are not normal for a 6-month-old infant. Significant head lag can be seen in infants with Down syndrome and hypoxia, as well as neurologic and other metabolic disorders. Some of those disorders might have mental retardation as a component. However, this child needs to have the referral to determine the cause of the head lag first. Health Promotion and Maintenance5. Right Answer: DExplanation: The ability to move five blocks to a piece of paper and state there are five blocks on the paper is evidence that the preschooler has the ability of conservation. This concept refers to the fact that the quantity of something doesnt change just because the shape, contour, and so on has changed. Five blocks are still five blocks, whether they are lying beside the paper, stacked on the paper or moved to the paper. Centration is the ability to concentrate on one feature of a situation while neglecting all other aspects. Causality is based on the sequence of events, one event ordinarily following another. Nonreversibility refers to the inability of preschoolers to reverse their operations. They are only able to think forward, not retrace or reverse their thought processes. Health Promotion and Maintenance .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 44
Questions 1. Tuberculosis (mycobacterium) usually effects which system?A) stomach (GI)B) heart (cardiac)C) lungs (respiratory)D) skin (integumentary)2. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?A) The cause and mode of transmission is unclear.B) There is no known cure for the disease.C) When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.D) Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.3. The sexually transmitted disease, sometimes referred to as the silent STD, that is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID is:A) genital herpes.B) trichomoniasis.C) syphilis.D) chlamydia.4. Which of the following is true concerning human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?A) HIV infection involves CD4 receptor protein on the surface of helper T-cells.B) The presence of circulating antibodies that neutralize HIV is evidence that the individual has immunity-HIV.C) HIV replication occurs extracellularly.D) DNA replication5. After breast reconstruction secondary to breast cancer, the nurse should recognize which of the following expected client outcomes as evidence of a favorable response to nursing interventions related to disturbed body image?A) maintaining adequate tissue perfusionB) demonstrating behaviors that reduce fearsC) restored body integrityD) remaining free of infection Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an aerobic bacillus that requires a great deal of oxygen to grow and flourish. It needs highly oxygenated body sites, such as lungs, growing ends of bones, and the brain. The bacillus is airborne. Physiological Adaptation2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Syphilis is an acute and chronic treponemal disease characterized clinically by a primary lesion, a secondary eruption involving skin and mucous membranes, long periods of latency, and late lesions of skin, bone viscera, the CNS, and the cardiovascular system. The primary lesion (chancre) appears about three weeks after exposure as an indurated, painless ulcer with serous exudate at the site of initial invasion. Invasion of the bloodstream precedes development of the initial lesion, and a firm, nonfluctuant, painless lymph node (bubo) commonly follows.Infection might occur without a clinically evident chancre; that is, it might be in the rectum or on the cervix. After foursix weeks, even without specific treatment, the chancre begins to involute, and, in approximately one-third of untreated cases, a generalized secondary eruption appears, often accompanied by mild constitutional symptoms.This symmetrical maculopapular rash involving the palms and soles, with associated lymphadenopathy is classic.Secondary manifestations resolve spontaneously within weeks to 12 months. Again, about one-third of untreated cases of secondary syphilis become clinically latent for weeks to years. In the early years of latency, infectious lesions of the skin and mucous membranes might recur. Specific treatment includes long-acting penicillin G (benzathine penicillin), 2.4 million units given in a single IM dose on the day that primary, secondary or early latent syphilis is diagnosed. This ensures effective therapy, even if the client fails to return. Serologic testing is important to ensure adequate therapy. Tests are repeated three and six months after treatment and later as needed.In HIV-infected clients, testing should be repeated one, two, and three months after treatment, and at three-month intervals thereafter. Any fourfold titer rise indicates the need for retreatment. Physiological Adaptation3. Right Answer: DExplanation: Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted genital infection and is manifested in males primarily as urethritis and in females as mucopurulent cervicitis. Clinical manifestations of urethritis are often difficult to distinguish from gonorrhea and include mucopurulent discharges of scant or moderate quantity, urethral itching, and burning on urination. Possible complications or sequelae of male urethral infections include epididymitis, infertility, and Reiter syndrome. In homosexual men, receptive anorectal intercourse might result in chlamydial proctitis. In women, the clinical manifestations might be similar to those of gonorrhea and frequently present as a mucopurulent endocervical discharge, with edema, erythema, and easily induced endocervical bleeding caused by inflammation of the endocervical columnar epithelium. However, up to 70% of sexually active women with chlamydial infections are asymptomatic. Complications and sequelae include salpingitis with subsequent risk of infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or chronic pelvic pain. Asymptomatic chronic infections of the endometrium and fallopian tubes might lead to the same outcome. Physiological Adaptation4. Right Answer: AExplanation: The virus makes a DNA copy of its own RNA using the reverse transcriptase enzyme, and the DNA copy is inserted into the genetic material of the infected cell.Physiological Adaptation5. Right Answer: CExplanation: A sense of restored body integrity is an expected outcome for interventions related to disturbed body image.Adequate tissue perfusion is an outcome for risk of injury and risk of infection, not disturbed body image.Demonstrating behaviors that might reduce fears is an outcome for anxiety. Remaining free of infection is an outcome for risk of infection. Health Promotion andMaintenance .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 45
Questions 1. When a client with a major burn experiences body image disturbance, which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention classification?A) grief work facilitationB) vital signs monitoringC) medication administration: skinD) anxiety reduction2. The nurse should teach a client in the Emergency Department, who has suffered an ankle sprain, to:A) use cold applications to the sprain during the first 24 - 48 hours.B) expect disability to decrease within the first 24 hours of injury.C) expect pain to decrease within 3 hours after injury.D) begin progressive passive and active range of motion exercises immediately.3. Jane Love, a 35-year old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?A) anemiaB) edemaC) painless vaginal bleedingD) fatigue4. When caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa, which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit?A) perineal shaveB) enemaC) urine specimen collectionD) blood specimen collection5. Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissas complaints with which of the following statements?A) 'The physician will probably want to admit you for observation.'B) 'The physician will probably order bed rest at home.'C) 'These are really dangerous signs.'D) 'The physician will probably prescribe some medicine for you.' Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: Grief work facilitation is a nursing intervention classification for disturbed body image in burn clients. The expected outcome is grief resolution. Vital signs monitoring is a nursing intervention classification for deficient fluid volume in clients with major burns. Medication administration: skin is a nursing intervention classification for impaired skin integrity for clients with major burns. Anxiety reduction is a nursing intervention classification for anxiety experienced by clients with major burns. Health Promotion and Maintenance2. Right Answer: AExplanation: Cold applications are believed to produce vasoconstriction and reduce development of edema. Disability and pain are anticipated to increase during the first 23 hours after injury. Progressive passive and active exercises may begin in 25 days, according to the physicians recommendation. A sprain is a traumatic injury to the tendons, muscles, or ligaments around a joint, characterized by pain, swelling, and discoloration of the skin over the joint. The duration and severity of the symptoms vary with the extent of damage to the supporting tissues.Treatment requires support, rest, and alternating cold and heat. X-ray pictures are often indicated to be certain that no fracture has occurred.PhysiologicalAdaptation3. Right Answer: CExplanation: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. The abdomen might be soft, nontender, and relax between contractions. Physiological Adaptation4. Right Answer: BExplanation: An enema could dislodge the placenta and increase bleeding. Physiological Adaptation5. Right Answer: BExplanation: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy, developing after 20 weeks gestation. It is characterized by edema, hypertension, and proteinuria (preclampsia and eclampsia). The cause is unknown. The client with advanced PIH needs rest, and home is the best place to get it. Hospitalization is not necessary in this situation. Medication is not indicated. Physiological Adaptation .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 46
Questions 1. Which physiologic mechanism best describes the function of the sodium-potassium pump?A) active transportB) diffusionC) filtrationD) osmosis2. Laboratory tests reveal the following electrolyte values for Mr. Smith: Na 135 mEq/L, Ca 8.5 mg/dL, Cl 102 mEq/L, and K 2.0 mEq/L. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the physician because of its potential risk to the client?A) CaB) KC) NaD) Cl3. A client receiving drug therapy with furosemide and digitalis requires careful observation and care. In planning care for this client, the nurse should recognize that which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to occur?A) hyperkalemiaB) hypernatremiaC) hypokalemiaD) hypomagnesemia4. Which statement best describes electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluid?A) There is a greater concentration of sodium in extracellular fluid and potassium in intracellular fluid.B) There is an equal concentration of sodium and potassium in extracellular fluid.C) There is a greater concentration of potassium in extracellular fluid and sodium in intracellular fluid.D) There is an equal concentration of sodium and potassium between intracellular and extracellular fluid.5. Which of the following instructions should a nurse give a client who is about to undergo pelvic ultrasonography?A) 'Urinate prior to the test.'B) 'Have someone drive you home.'C) 'Do not drink after midnight.'D) 'Drink plenty of water.' Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: Active transport is a process requiring energy to transport ions against a concentration gradient, as is needed in the sodium-potassium pump. Choices 2, 3, and 4 are other regulatory mechanisms involved in fluid and electrolyte balance. Physiological Adaptation2. Right Answer: BExplanation: Normal serum potassium level ranges between 3.5 and 5.5 mEq/L. The levels in choices 1, 3, and 4 are within normal ranges. Physiological Adaptation3. Right Answer: CExplanation: Diuretics such as furosemide might deplete serum potassium. Additionally, the action of digitalis might be potentiated by hypokalemia. These drugs are not associated with hyperkalemia. Diuretic therapy could cause hyponatremia, not hypernatremia. Choice 4 is generally associated with poor nutrition, alcoholism, and excessive GI or renal losses. Physiological Adaptation4. Right Answer: AExplanation: There is a greater concentration of sodium in extracellular fluid and potassium in intracellular fluid. Physiological Adaptation5. Right Answer: DExplanation: A full bladder is required to serve as a landmark to define pelvic organs. No sedation is given, so the client may drive herself home after the test. Reduction of RiskPotential .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 47
Questions 1. Which of the following is not a reason for pelvic ultrasonography?A) to measure uterine sizeB) to detect multiple pregnanciesC) to measure renal sizeD) to detect foreign bodies2. Which of the following allergies might be a contraindication for a client to receive contrast enhancement for intracranial computed tomography?A) penicillinB) iodineC) erythromycinD) aspirin3. Which medication might the physician order if the client expresses discomfort with being in the enclosed space of a CT scanner?A) Valium (diazepam)B) Clozaril (clozapine)C) Catapress (clonidine)D) Lasix (furosemide)4. A Roman Catholic client is preparing to have magnetic resonance imaging. He wants to wear his metal crucifix pendant while he is receiving the test. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?A) 'Because it gives you comfort, you may wear it.'B) 'It is a violation of religious rights to forbid it.'C) 'I am sorry, but it is not safe for you to wear the crucifix during this test.'D) 'You may wear it because it is important to you.'5. Which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate understanding of preparation for a lipoprotein fractionation test?A) 'I cannot eat or drink after midnight.'B) 'I cannot eat for 12 hours before the test.'C) 'I need to limit my fluid intake.'D) 'I need to ingest a lipid solution.' Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: The remainder of the responses are indications for pelvic ultrasonography. Reduction of Risk Potential2. Right Answer: BExplanation: Iodine allergy might be a contraindication for contrast media, not the other allergies. Reduction of Risk Potential3. Right Answer: AExplanation: Valium is a sedative that might be given prior to receiving a CT scan. The other medications are not sedatives. Reduction of Risk Potential4. Right Answer: CExplanation: No metal objects may be worn while receiving magnetic resonance imaging, due to safety risks involved with the strong magnet. Other options for spiritual support should be explored with the client. Reduction of Risk Potential5. Right Answer: BExplanation: For lipid fractionation, the client cannot eat for 12 hours prior to the test, but he or she can drink an unrestricted amount of water. No lipid solution is given. Thus, the other choices are incorrect. Reduction of Risk Potential .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 1
Questions 1. A 25-year-old client believes she may be pregnant with her first child. She schedules an obstetric examination with the nurse practitioner to determine the status of her possible pregnancy. Her last menstrual period began May 20, and her estimated date of confinement using Ngeles rule is:A) March 27B) February 1C) February 27D) January 32. The nurse practitioner determines that a client is approximately 9 weeks gestation. During the visit, the practitioner informs the client about symptoms of physical changes that she will experience during her first trimester, such as:A) Nausea and vomitingB) QuickeningC) A 6 - 8 lb weight gainD) Abdominal enlargement3. A client is 6 weeks pregnant. During her first prenatal visit, she asks, 'How much alcohol is safe to drink during pregnancy?' The nurse - s response is:A) Up to 1 oz dailyB) Up to 2 oz dailyC) Up to 4 oz weeklyD) No alcohol4. A 38-year-old pregnant woman visits her nurse practitioner for her regular prenatal checkup. She is 30 weeks gestation. The nurse should be alert to which condition related to her age?A) Iron-deficiency anemiaB) Sexually transmitted disease (STD)C) Intrauterine growth retardationD) Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)5. A client returns for her 6-month prenatal checkup and has gained 10 lb in 2 months. The results of her physical examination are normal. How does the nurse interpret the effectiveness of the instruction about diet and weight control?A) She is compliant with her diet as previously taught.B) She needs further instruction and reinforcement.C) She needs to increase her caloric intake.D) She needs to be placed on a restrictive diet immediately. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A)March 27 is a miscalculation. (B) February 1 is a miscalculation. (C) February 27 is the correct answer. To calculate the estimated date of confinement usingNageles rule, subtract 3 months from the date that the last menstrual cycle began and then add 7 days to the result. (D) January 3 is a miscalculation.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Nausea and vomiting are experienced by almost half of all pregnant women during the first 3 months of pregnancy as a result of elevated human chorionic gonadotropin levels and changed carbohydrate metabolism. (B) Quickening is the mothers perception of fetal movement and generally does not occur until 1820 weeks after the last menstrual period in primigravidas, but it may occur as early as 16 weeks in multigravidas. (C) During the first trimester there should be only a modest weight gain of 24 lb. It is not uncommon for women to lose weight during the first trimester owing to nausea and/or vomiting. (D) Physical changes are not apparent until the second trimester, when the uterus rises out of the pelvis.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A, B, C) No amount of alcohol has been determined safe for pregnant women. Alcohol should be avoided owing to the risk of fetal alcohol syndrome. (D) The recommended safe dosage of alcohol consumption during pregnancy is none.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Iron-deficiency anemia can occur throughout pregnancy and is not age related. (B) STDs can occur prior to or during pregnancy and are not age related. (C)Intrauterine growth retardation is an abnormal process where fetal development and maturation are delayed. It is not age related. (D) Physical risks for the pregnant client older than 35 include increased risk for PIH, cesarean delivery, fetal and neonatal mortality, and trisomy.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) She is probably not compliant with her diet and exercise program. Recommended weight gain during second and third trimesters is approximately 12 lb. (B)Because of her excessive weight gain of 10 lb in 2 months, she needs re-evaluation of her eating habits and reinforcement of proper dietary habits for pregnancy.A 2200-calorie diet is recommended for most pregnant women with a weight gain of 2730 lb over the 9-month period. With rapid and excessive weightgain, PIH should also be suspected. (C) She does not need to increase her caloric intake, but she does need to re-evaluate dietary habits. Ten pounds in 2 months is excessive weight gain during pregnancy, and health teaching is warranted. (D) Restrictive dieting is not recommended during pregnancy. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 2
Questions 1. Pregnant women with diabetes often have problems related to the effectiveness of insulin in controlling their glucose levels during their second half of pregnancy.The nurse teaches the client that this is due to:A) Decreased glomerular filtration and increased tubular absorptionB) Decreased estrogen levelsC) Decreased progesterone levelsD) Increased human placental lactogen levels2. Diabetes during pregnancy requires tight metabolic control of glucose levels to prevent perinatal mortality. When evaluating the pregnant client, the nurse knows the recommended serum glucose range during pregnancy is:A) 70 mg/dL and 120 mg/dLB) 100 mg/dL and 200 mg/dLC) 40 mg/dL and 130 mg/dLD) 90 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL3. When assessing fetal heart rate status during labor, the monitor displays late decelerations with tachycardia and decreasing variability. What action should the nurse take?A) Continue monitoring because this is a normal occurrence.B) Turn client on right side.C) Decrease IV fluids.D) Report to physician or midwife.4. A client has been diagnosed as being preeclamptic. The physician orders magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) is used in the management of preeclampsia for:A) Prevention of seizuresB) Prevention of uterine contractionsC) SedationD) Fetal lung protection5. The predominant purpose of the first Apgar scoring of a newborn is to:A) Determine gross abnormal motor functionB) Obtain a baseline for comparison with the infant - s future adaptation to the environmentC) Evaluate the infant - s vital functionsD) Determine the extent of congenital malformations Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) There is a rise in glomerular filtration rate in the kidneys in conjunction with decreased tubular glucose reabsorption, resulting in glycosuria. (B) Insulin is inhibited by increased levels of estrogen. (C) Insulin is inhibited by increased levels of progesterone. (D) Human placental lactogen levels increase later in pregnancy. This hormonal antagonist reduces insulins effectiveness, stimulates lipolysis, and increases the circulation of free fatty acids.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) The recommended range is 70120 mg/dL to reduce the risk of perinatal mortality. (B, C, D) These levels are not recommended. The higher the blood glucose, the worse the prognosis for the fetus. Hypoglycemia can also have detrimental effects on the fetus.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) This is not a normal occurrence. Late decelerations need prompt intervention for immediate infant recovery. (B) To increase O2 perfusion to the unborn infant, the mother should be placed on her left side. (C) IV fluids should be increased, not decreased. (D) Immediate action is warranted, such as reporting findings, turning mother on left side, administering O2, discontinuing oxytocin (Pitocin), assessing maternal blood pressure and the labor process, preparing for immediate cesarean delivery, and explaining plan of action to client.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) MgSO4 is classified as an anticonvulsant drug. In preeclampsia management, MgSO4 is used for prevention of seizures. (B) MgSO4 has been used to inhibit hyperactive labor, but results are questionable. (C) Negative side effects such as respiratory depression should not be confused with generalized sedation. (D)MgSO4 does not affect lung maturity. The infant should be assessed for neuromuscular and respiratory depression.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Apgar scores are not related to the infants care, but to the infants physical condition. (B) Apgar scores assess the current physical condition of the infant and are not related to future environmental adaptation. (C) The purpose of the Apgar system is to evaluate the physical condition of the newborn at birth and to determine if there is an immediate need for resuscitation. (D) Congenital malformations are not one of the areas assessed with Apgar scores. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
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