Where possibilities begin

We’re a leading marketplace platform for learning and teaching online. Explore some of our most popular content and learn something new.
Total 1734 Blogs
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 102

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 102

Questions 1. A nursing advocate is one who:A) makes decisions for others.B) encourages persons to make decisions for themselves and acts with or on behalf of the person to support those decisions.C) manages the care of others.D) is the legal representative for a person.2. A case management clinical pathway for congestive heart failure might include all of the following except:A) physician follow-up appointments with transportation.B) client education regarding medication use.C) a nutritional consult for diet review and accommodation.D) insurance review for reimbursement.3. The nurse notices that a family is waiting at the nursing station desk for its loved one to be brought to the unit for admission during a change-of-shift report. The nurse should:A) request that the family wait for its loved one in the client - s room and wait to resume the report until the family has left the desk area.B) request that a nursing assistant bring coffee for the family while it waits at the desk and continue with the report.C) request that the family have a seat in the station rather than stand while awaiting its loved one.D) request that the family wait for its loved one in the Emergency Department waiting room.4. The nurse belongs to a professional nursing organization that provides social, educational, and political venues for nurses. The nurse has been active in this organization for almost two years, during which time she meets and works with nurses from several different nursing agencies and health care institutions to achieve a variety of goals, including obtaining advice regarding a personal career choice. This is an example of:A) professional nurturing.B) networking.C) mentoring.D) collegiality.5. A legal right to confidentiality of client information is waived when:A) a court system subpoenas information.B) a family member requests health care information of a client.C) a living will takes effect.D) the client is declared incompetent by the legal system. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: Nurse advocates work with clients to provide information and assistance is decision-making. The decisions and care that occur from these decisions are based on the right of the client to self-determination and the work of the nurse advocate supports this right. Coordinated Care2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Clinical pathways include maps of care outcomes to be achieved prior to discharge or movement through a health care system. Insurance review for reimbursement is a function of an outside agency from the health care provider related to the amount of expected monetary compensation for services rendered to a client. Coordinated Care3. Right Answer: AExplanation: To protect the privacy of clients and the confidentiality of the information shared in a change-of-shift report, the family should be asked to wait in the clients room, and the report should be resumed only after it can no longer hear what is said. Coordinated Care4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Networking involves the process of developing and using contacts throughout ones professional career for information, advice, and support. Nurturing and mentoring are both examples of assistance to other colleagues in formal and informal relationships for support and career building. Collegiality is the professional camaraderie or rapport established among persons through shared experiences. Coordinated Care5. Right Answer: AExplanation: The legal right to confidentiality is waived when the court requires information to be given to the court for legal proceedings to occur (summonses, court orders, litigation information necessary for the court, subpoenas, and so on), when the state requires mandatory reporting of certain illnesses, when sharing information is necessary because a client has revealed an intent to harm himself or others, or when a client cannot make a safe and rational decision (competence).Coordinated Care .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

More details

Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 103

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 103

Questions 1. A gastroenterologist should be consulted for clients suffering from:A) digestive system diseases.B) urinary system diseases.C) female reproductive system diseases.D) nervous system diseases.2. A client has experienced a CVA with right hemiparesis and is ready for discharge from the hospital to a long-term care facility for rehab. To provide optimal continuity of care, the nurse should do all of the following except:A) document current functional status.B) have the physician phone a report to the receiving facility.C) copy appropriate parts of the medical record for transport to the receiving facility.D) phone a report to the facility.3. An example of a process standard on a med-surg unit is:A) a procedure for changing IV tubing.B) a policy for staffing.C) the job description of the CEO (chief executive officer).D) a procedure for checking waveforms on a client being treated on an intra-aortic balloon pump.4. Which direction given to the nursing assistant is most likely to accomplish the task of getting a urine specimen delivered to the lab immediately after collection?A) 'Make it a stat delivery.'B) 'Please do it as soon as you can after break.'C) 'This client is delirious, and we - re worried about a urinary sepsis.'D) 'Take this client to the bathroom now and collect a urine specimen from this voiding. Take the specimen to the lab immediately.'5. Priorities to be considered intermediate are:A) the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client.B) those tasks that can be delegated to assistive personnel.C) those tasks that can be performed at the end of the shift.D) those task that can be performed at any time. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: A gastroenterologist cares for clients with digestive system diseases. A urologist cares for clients with urinary system diseases. A gynecologist cares for clients with female reproductive system diseases. A neurologist cares for clients with nervous system diseases. Coordinated Care2. Right Answer: BExplanation: It is the nurses responsibility to communicate the clients condition and care plan to the receiving facility to support continuity of care. Documentation of the clients baseline functional status is important for the receiving facility to work with in further goal setting. A copy of select portions of the medical record (according to facility policy) is another form of communication and supports continuity. A physician might be asked to be involved if there are specific medical needs or orders that she believe are important, but is generally not involved. Coordinated Care3. Right Answer: AExplanation: Process standards define the actions and behaviors required by staff to provide care. A procedure for changing IV tubing is a psychomotor skill that is applied to helping clients meet their goals. Coordinated Care4. Right Answer: DExplanation: Effective delegation depends on clear, concise direction that leaves no room for question or interpretation on the part of the one being delegated to. Nursing assistants have a limited understanding of medical conditions and terminology, and should not be relied on to prioritize such tasks. Coordinated Care5. Right Answer: AExplanation: Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are those that are not urgent. They do not affect the clients immediate physiological status. This does not imply that they are not important or not necessary. Intermediate priorities might still require the skill level of an RN for completion. There might be specific time requirements for completion as well. Coordinated Care .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

More details

Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 104

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 104

Questions 1. A mother has come to the pediatric clinic concerned about the recent outbreak of West Nile Virus. The ages of her children are 5, 7, and 10. The mother has asked the nurse what she can do to prevent her children from contracting this illness. Which piece of information is best to provide the mother with?A) The children should wear long sleeves and long pants while outside.B) Apply insect repellant containing DEET when the children are outside.C) Remove standing water from the property.D) All of the above.2. The home health nurse has made a visit to an 85-year-old female clients home who has recently had surgery to replace her left knee. The client has been discharged from a rehab facility and has been able to walk on her own. The nurse assesses the need for teaching related to fall prevention. What should the nurse include in this teaching plan?A) The client should remove all scatter rugs from the floor and minimize clutter.B) The client should not get up and move around the house.C) The client does not need to install a raised toilet and grab bar because she is able to walk on her own.D) The client should wear a robe and socks while walking in the house.3. Issues addressed in ethics committees include all of the following except:A) nonpayment of bills.B) euthanasia.C) starting or stopping treatment.D) use of feeding tubes.4. How is the information documented on incident reports used?A) to analyze risk categoriesB) to make sure procedures are in compliance with regulationsC) to identify the educational needs of the staffD) all of the above5. The only time that an individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent is:A) when the durable power of attorney for health care is not available.B) in an emergency, life-or-death situation.C) when the physician is not available for discussion with the client.D) when they (clients) are not able to speak for themselves. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: It is recommended that the children wear insect repellant containing DEET and long-sleeve shirts and long pants when they are outside. Removing standing water from areas around where the children play can help decrease the number of breeding mosquitoes. These are the only known methods of prevention at this time.Health Promotion and Maintenance2. Right Answer: AExplanation: Rugs and clutter are a primary cause of falls in the home and should be eliminated if possible to decrease the risk of a fall. The elderly and those with gait issues are at an increased risk for a fall at home. The client should have a raised toilet seat and grab bars available in the bathroom to aid in movement in this potential slippery area of the home. Some clients find it difficult to rise up and down from the toilet and to get in and out of the shower. These items are all important in maintaining safety in the home. The client should not limit her movement within the home unless ordered by the physician. This decreases the ability of the client to perform activities of daily living and hinders the clients return to a normal lifestyle after surgery. The client should not wear baggy clothing such as long robes, and the client should not wear socks on slippery floors. These items can cause the client to trip, slip, or fall. Health Promotion and Maintenance3. Right Answer: AExplanation: Ethics committees do not deal with financial matters of payment. Euthanasia, starting or stopping treatment, and use of feeding tubes to maintain nutritional status are topics within the ethical scope of the committees function. Coordinated Care4. Right Answer: DExplanation: Risk management plays a vital role as an arm of quality monitoring and improvement programs. It utilizes information obtained from incident reports, as well as audits, committee minutes, service complaints, and client satisfaction questionnaires to perform all of the tasks identified. Safety and Infection Control5. Right Answer: BExplanation: Treatment may be given without consent in a life-threatening situation. Choices 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. All attempts to notify a durable power of attorney for health care should be made. If unavailable, the physician assumes responsibility for treatment within facility protocol. The physician is obligated to have a discussion with the client in all non-life-threatening situations. If clients are not able to speak for themselves, their power of attorney for health care or responsible party is involved in the consent process. Coordinated Care .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

More details

Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 105

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 105

Questions 1. The acts enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:A) Good Samaritan laws.B) HIPAA.C) Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).D) OBRA.2. Which of the following substances need to be assessed when completing a family health assessment?A) coffee, tea, cola, and cocoaB) alcohol, tobacco, and illegal substancesC) medicines prescribed by a physicianD) all of the above3. An appraisal of self-care practices involves an assessment of:A) all diagnostic tests.B) home treatment practices, including nurse visits for the sick or disabled.C) the family - s capability to get health insurance.D) caregiving needs and the potential for strain.4. Which of the following is one of the main goals for Healthy People 2010?A) reduction of health care costsB) elimination of health disparitiesC) investigation of substance abuseD) determination of an acceptable morbidity rate5. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?A) primary preventionB) secondary preventionC) tertiary preventionD) health promotion Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: The Good Samaritan laws protect providers of care in an emergency situation. HIPAAs focus is confidentiality of information and right to privacy. The PSDA concerns a clients autonomous decision-making. OBRA was passed in the late 1980s to promote nursing home reform due to quality issues. Coordinated Care2. Right Answer: DExplanation: When assessing drug, alcohol, and tobacco practices among family members, a thorough investigation of prescribed, over-the-counter and illegal substance-use practices should be made. Assessment of dietary practices should include the amount and types of food the family eats; the social behaviors associated with dietary practices; and the meal planning, shopping, and preparation practices of the family. Health Promotion and Maintenance3. Right Answer: DExplanation: Short-tem stressors impinging on a family include unemployment, being on welfare, the threat of termination, health, hospitalization, convalescence, depression, and suicidal thoughts. Long-term stressors impinging on the family include emotional distance, lack of communication in families (especially within marital relationships), continual geographical movement from one community to the next (so that no stable and sufficient social network is established), a spouses minimal participation in family life, and excessive and frequent drinking bouts. Family strengths include the presence of a social support system, interest in and capability to provide child care, motivation for employment, and financial self-sufficiency, self-care beliefs, values, health-seeking behaviors, and realistic goals and limitations. Health Promotion and Maintenance4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Healthy People 2010 has as its main goal elimination of health disparities among the U.S. population.Healthy People 2010 is a set of health objectives for the nation to achieve over the first decade of the twenty-first century and was developed by the Surgeon Generals office. Earlier editions of this report,Healthy People and Healthy People 2000: National Health Promotion and Disease Prevention Objectives established national health objectives and served as the basis for the development of state and community plans. Health Promotion and Maintenance5. Right Answer: BExplanation: This client is receiving secondary prevention. The current focus of health care is on preventive care. Leavell and Clark (1965) described the three levels of preventive care as primary, secondary, and tertiary. Secondary preventive care focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. Examples of activities at this level are carrying out direct nursing actions (for example, providing wound care, giving medications, exercising arms and legs), assessing children for normal growth and development, and encouraging regular medical and dental screenings and care. Primary preventive care is directed toward health promotion and specific protections against illness. Activities at this level might focus on individuals or groups. Examples of primary-level activities are immunizations, family-planning services, teaching breast self-examination, poison-control information, and accident-prevention education. Tertiary preventive care begins after an illness is diagnosed and treated and is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients and restore them to their maximum level of functioning. Health Promotion and Maintenance .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

More details

Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 106

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 106

Questions 1. Which of the following developmental milestones for a 6-month-old child should be screened by the nurse during a routine office visit?A) standing while holding somethingB) rolling overC) sitting upD) creeping2. During the health screening of an adolescent, which finding by the nurse requires further teaching?A) The client started her first menses 2 years ago.B) The client states she is currently on birth control pills.C) The client states she recently lost 5 pounds.D) The client states she is experiencing growing pains.3. A mother brings her 1-year-old child to the clinic. The child has no record of previous immunizations, and the mother confirms the child has not been immunized.Teaching by the nurse should include which of the following?A) Immunizations may be started at any age.B) The recommended immunization schedule must be followed exactly.C) If a primary series of immunizations is interrupted, the series must be restarted.D) This child is at increased risk for reaction to the vaccines, when they are started.4. Which of the following vaccines is a live virus?A) varicellaB) IPVC) DTaPD) hepatitis B5. The nurse provides a postoperative client with an analgesic medication and darkens the room before the client goes to sleep for the night. The nurse - s actions:A) help the client - s circadian rhythm.B) stimulate hormonal changes in the brain.C) decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex.D) alert the hypothalamus in the brain. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: Rolling over occurs between 4 and 6 months of age. Sitting up occurs between 7 and 8 months, creeping between 9 and 10 months, and standing between 8 and10 months. Health Promotion and Maintenance2. Right Answer: BExplanation: Because the client is on the pill, she requires further teaching regarding protection against STDs. The other findings are not abnormal for an adolescent. HealthPromotion and Maintenance3. Right Answer: AExplanation: While a recommended immunization schedule exists, immunizations may be started at any age. An interrupted series may be continued and need not be restarted. There is no increased risk for reaction to vaccines due to delay. Health Promotion and Maintenance4. Right Answer: AExplanation: Varicella is a live virus, as is OPV. IPV is an inactivated polio vaccine. Health Promotion and Maintenance5. Right Answer: CExplanation: Reduction of environmental stimuli (particularly light and noise) from the cerebral cortex (which can be an area of arousal) facilitates sleep. Sleep occurs when there is a decreased input into this area. Basic Care and Comfort .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

More details

Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 107

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 107

Questions 1. Following an automobile accident that caused a head injury to an adult client, the nurse observes that the client sleeps for long periods of time. The nurse determines that the client has experienced injury to the:A) hypothalamus.B) thalamus.C) cortex.D) medulla.2. A nursing care plan for a client with sleep problems has been implemented. All of the following should be expected outcomes except:A) the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night.B) the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed.C) the client reports satisfaction with his amount of sleep.D) the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale.3. A month after receiving a blood transfusion, an immunocompromised client develops fever, liver abnormalities, a rash, and diarrhea. The nurse should suspect this client has:A) nothing related to the blood transfusion.B) graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).C) myelosuppression.D) an allergic response to a recent medication.4. An infection in a central venous access device is not eliminated by giving antibiotics through the catheter. How might bacterial glycocalyx contribute to this?A) It protects the bacteria from antibiotic and immunologic destruction.B) Glycocalyx neutralizes the antibiotic, rendering it ineffective.C) It competes with the antibiotic for binding sites on the microbe.D) Glycocalyx provides nutrients for microbial growth.5. Chemotherapeutic agents often produce a degree of myelosuppression including leukopenia. Leukopenia does not present immediately but is delayed several days or weeks because:A) the client - s hemoglobin and hematocrit are normal.B) red blood cells are affected first.C) folic acid levels are normal.D) the current white cell count is not affected by chemotherapy. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: The hypothalamus, when injured, can cause fluctuations and disruptions in sleep patterns. Basic Care and Comfort2. Right Answer: BExplanation: An expected outcome is that the client falls asleep shortly after going to bed. The stages of sleep are defined by 4 stages. By stage 3 or 4 (within a short period of time usually 1 hour) the client is considered to be in the deep part of sleep. Basic Care and Comfort3. Right Answer: BExplanation: GVHD occurs when white blood cells in donor blood attack the tissues of an immunocompromised recipient. This process can occur within a month of the transfusion. Choices 1 and 4 are possible, but the nurse must remember that immunocompromised transfusion recipients are at risk for GVHD. PharmacologicalTherapies4. Right Answer: AExplanation: Glycocalyx is a viscous polysaccharide or polypeptide slime that covers microbes. It enhances adherence to surfaces, resists phagocytic engulfment by the white blood cells, and prevents antibiotics from contacting the microbe. Glycocalyx does not have the effects described in Choices 2, 3, and 4. PharmacologicalTherapies5. Right Answer: DExplanation: Time is required to clear circulating cells before the effect that chemotherapeutic drugs have on precursor cell maturation in the bone marrow becomes evident.Leukopenia is an abnormally low white blood cell count. Choices 1, 2, and 3 pertain to red blood cells. Pharmacological Therapies .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

More details

Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 108

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 108

Questions 1. A client has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by the cytochrome p-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the cytochrome p-450 system. You should monitor this client for:A) increased therapeutic effects of Drug A.B) increased adverse effects of Drug B.C) decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A.D) decreased therapeutic effects of Drug B.2. Ten-year-old Jackie is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever. She relates a history of 'a sore throat about a month ago.' Bed rest with bathroom privileges is prescribed. Which of the following nursing assessments should be given the highest priority when assessing Jackies condition?A) her response to being hospitalizedB) the presence of a macular rash on her trunkC) her cardiac statusD) the presence of polyarthritis and pain in her joints3. A 21-year-old college student has just learned that she contracted genital herpes from her sexual partner. After completing the initial history and assessment, the nurse has data concerning areas pertinent to the disease. The data is likely to include all but which of the following?A) voiding patternsB) characteristics of lesionsC) vaginal dischargeD) prior history of varicella4. A client has been admitted in septic shock. Her nursing care plan includes the diagnosis High Risk for Injury (related to clotting disorder). Based on this diagnosis, all the following are appropriate entries in the nursing care plan except:A) obtain an order for a stool softener.B) administer packed RBCs, if ordered.C) encourage the client to rinse her mouth with mouthwash and scrub her teeth with an oral sponge.D) dress venipuncture sites immediately to prevent infection.5. A person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops who reports unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion should be instructed to:A) switch to a stronger dose of the medication.B) discontinue the medication for a few weeks.C) continue taking the same medication, but use it more frequently.D) use a combination of medications for better relief. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Drug B induces the cytochrome p-450 enzyme system of the liver, thus increasing the metabolism of Drug A. Therefore, Drug A is broken down faster and exerts decreased therapeutic effects. Drug A is metabolized faster, thus reducing, not increasing, its therapeutic effect. Inducing the cytochrome p-450 system does not increase the adverse effects of Drug B. Drug B induces the cytochrome p-450 system but is not metabolized faster. Thus, the therapeutic effects of Drug B are not decreased. Pharmacological Therapies2. Right Answer: CExplanation: Monitoring cardiac status is of the highest priority. Permanent cardiac damage can result from rheumatic fever. The second priority is assessing the clients joints for the presence of polyarthritis and accompanying pain. Physiological Adaptation3. Right Answer: DExplanation: The other choices are common reasons for which clients with herpes seek care. Physiological Adaptation4. Right Answer: DExplanation: Firm, direct pressure should be applied to venipuncture sites for 37 minutes before final dressing because of the clotting abnormality. Septic shock is a systemic infection of the bloodstream producing clinical manifestations warm, flushed skin; high urine output; tachycardia; edema; respiratory problems; restlessness; altered level of consciousness; life-threatening form of shock. Physiological Adaptation5. Right Answer: BExplanation: Prolonged use of decongestant drops (3 to 5 days) can lead to rebound congestion, which is relieved by discontinuing the medication for 2 to 3 weeks. Nasal congestion results from dilation of nasal blood vessels due to infection, inflammation, or allergy. With this dilation, there is a transudation of fluid into the tissue spaces, resulting in swelling of the nasal cavity. Nasal decongestants (sympathomimetic amines) stimulate the alphaadrenergic receptors, producing vascular constriction (vasoconstriction) of the capillaries within the nasal mucosa. The result is shrinking of the nasal mucous membranes and a reduction in fluid secretion(runny nose). Decongestants can make a client jittery, nervous, or restless. These side effects decrease or disappear as the body adjusts to the drug. When nasal decongestants are used for longer than 5 days, instead of the nasal membranes constricting, vasodilation occurs, causing increased stuffy nose and nasal congestion. The nurse should emphasize the importance of limiting the use of nasal sprays and drops. As with any alpha-adrenergic drug (for example, decongestants), blood pressure and blood glucose levels can increase. These drugs are contraindicated and should only be used with extreme caution for clients with hypertension, cardiac disease, hyperthyroidism, and diabetes mellitus. Physiological Adaptation .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

More details

Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 109

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 109

Questions 1. A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:A) is given after the D10W is finished.B) should be given at the time it is due in the medication port closest to the client.C) can be piggybacked into the D10W solution now.D) is incompatible with dextrose solutions.2. The physician wants to know if a client is tolerating his total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory tests is likely to be ordered?A) triglyceride levelB) liver function testsC) a glucose tolerance testD) a complete blood count3. When planning intervention for a client during a crisis, which of the following outcomes is most appropriate?A) The client should explore deep psychological problems.B) The client should express positive feelings about event.C) The client should identify needs that are threatened by the event.D) The client should use constructive coping mechanisms.4. A man expresses surprise that his wife has become very withdrawn during hospitalization for pneumonia. Which response helps the husband understand how some people cope with hospitalization?A) 'Hospitalization might cause a crisis. Has your wife had to cope with problems before this?'B) 'Some people react that way. She will be more talkative when she feels better.'C) 'Your wife might be feeling concern that she cannot fulfill her normal roles.'D) 'This is typical behavior for someone who is as ill as your wife.'5. The nurse is assessing an elder who the nurse suspects is being physically abused. The most important question for nurse to ask is:A) 'How much money do you keep around the house?'B) 'Who provides your physical care?'C) 'How close does your nearest relative live?'D) 'What form of transportation do you use?' Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: Phenytoin and dextrose will precipitate. Normal saline is used to flush before and after phenytoin administration.The administration of an antiepileptic drug cannot be delayed to maintain a therapeutic blood level. Pharmacological Therapies2. Right Answer: BExplanation: The liver is the primary organ for digestion. Liver function tests measure the blood level of enzymes produced by the liver: prothrombin time/partial prothrombin time, serum glutamic oxaloacetic and pyruvic transaminases, gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, albumin, and alkalinephosphatase. Choice 1 measures the bodys ability to clear triglycerides, the primary component of fats. Failure to clear triglycerides from the bloodstream indicates a problem with storage or the ingestion of too much fat. Choice 3 measures the blood glucose at intervals after a glucose-rich solution is ingested; it is used for diagnosing diabetes. Choice 4 is used to evaluate blood components. Pharmacological Therapies3. Right Answer: DExplanation: The primary goal of crisis intervention is to relieve the symptoms of anxiety and foster constructive coping.Previous psychological issues might recur during crisis, but the focus is on short-term resolution of the current problem. At the end, the nurse credits a client for positive changes and helps him or her understand what was learned. This allows the client to use the learned coping mechanisms when new problems arise.Psychosocial Integrity4. Right Answer: AExplanation: Hospitalization might precipitate a crisis in either the client or family. Clients might become demanding or withdrawn. Family members might become demanding to help them cope with insecurity. Psychosocial Integrity5. Right Answer: BExplanation: The most common abuser is a caregiver living with the client. Research reveals that the spouse is currently the most common abuser, followed by an adult child.Psychosocial Integrity .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

More details

Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions  - Part 110

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 110

Questions 1. A nurse notes that an elderly client suddenly does not keep appointments and is not wearing appropriate clothing. Which statement by the client raises the suspicion of financial abuse?A) 'I am having difficulty paying for this new antibiotic the physician prescribed.'B) 'I am a little short on cash since my daughter moved in to help me.'C) 'I have not felt like shopping since the weather has gotten worse.'D) 'People do not realize how difficult it is to make ends meet on a fixed income.'2. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:A) a maintenance dose.B) a loading dose.C) a medication with no first-pass effect.D) the medication to be given intravenously.3. In hanging a parenteral IV fluid that is to be infused by gravity, rather than with an infusion pump, the nurse notes that the IV tubing is available in different drop factors. Which tubing is a microdrop set?A) 15 drops per milliliterB) 60 drops per milliliterC) 20 drops per milliliterD) 10 drops per milliliter4. The ICU nurse caring for a client who has just been declared brain dead can expect to find evidence of the client - s wishes regarding organ donation:A) on the driver - s license of the client.B) in the client - s safety deposit box.C) in the client - s last will and testament.D) on the client - s insurance card.5. An 85-year-old client is eligible for Medicare reimbursable home care services. Referral is contingent on meeting which of the following criteria?A) homebound status, requiring skilled therapy careB) immediate previous hospitalization for acute careC) ageD) requirement of nursing and social work support Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: Elderly clients on fixed incomes have difficulty meeting new expenses, such as medicine. Signs of financial abuse include unexplained illnesses that are left untreated, an inability to pay rent or purchase clothes and food, and inaccurate knowledge about finances. Financial abuse is a form of elder abuse and requires investigation. Psychosocial Integrity2. Right Answer: BExplanation: A loading or priming dose rapidly establishes a therapeutic plasma drug level. It can be calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose maintains a therapeutic level after the loading dose. It takes five drug half-lives to achieve steady state if no loading dose is given. Choice 3 is similar to a maintenance dose. Intravenous administration provides excellent drug bioavailability, but one dose will not achieve a therapeutic plasma level. Pharmacological Therapies3. Right Answer: BExplanation: All microdrop sets are calculated to give 60 drops for each milliliter of IV fluid. Macrodrop sets are calculated to give 10, 15, or 20 drops for each milliliter of IV fluid.Pharmacological Therapies4. Right Answer: AExplanation: In most states, indication of organ donor status is found on the drivers license. Evidence in a last will and testament or in a safety deposit box is not readily accessible for decision-making if the need arises. Insurance cards do not contain such information. Another source might be the clients primary care physicians health record documentation. Coordinated Care5. Right Answer: AExplanation: The requirements for Medicare-reimbursable home care services include the client being homebound and requiring a skilled service, such as PT/OT/ST/nursing/ social work. Coordinated Care .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS

More details

Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

Search
Popular categories
Latest blogs
HR all events, conferences in 2023
HR all events, conferences in 2023
2023 SWPP Annual Conference ↗ Location: Omni Nashville Hotel, Nashville, TN, USAStart Date: May 15, 2023Category: HR 41st ANNUAL Payroll Conference ↗ Location:  Denver, CO, USAStart Date: May 16, 2023Category: Payroll Association for Talent Development (ATD) 2023 International Conference & Exposition ↗ Location:  San Diego Convention Center, CA, USAStart Date: May 21, 2023Category: Talent Development Connect Human Resources Summit ↗ Location: Twickenham Stadium, London, EnglandStart Date: May 22, 2023Category: HR HRCoreNordic ↗ Location: Copenhagen Marriott Hotel, Copenhagen, DenmarkStart Date: May 24, 2023Category: HR‍ Nordic People Analytics Summit 2023 ↗ Location: Birger Jarl Hotel, Stockholm, SwedenStart Date: May 17, 2023Category: People Analytics‍2023 VIRTUAL Conference: HR Technology, Data, and the Employee Experience ↗ Location: VirtualStart Date: May 18, 2023Category: HR, Employee Experience‍HR Core Nordic ↗ Location: VirtualStart Date: May 18, 2023Category: HR Tech ‍‍Future of Work USA ↗ Location: Chicago, IL, USAStart Date: June 6, 2023Category: HR, Future of WorkCIPD Festival of Work ↗ Location: Olympia London, London, UKStart Date: June 7, 2023Category: HR‍ HR Innovation & Tech Fest ↗ Location: Cordis, Auckland, New ZealandStart Date: June 7, 2023Category: HR, HR Tech UFHRD Conference 2023 ↗ Location: National College of Ireland, Dublin, IrelandStart Date: June 7, 2021Category: HR 27TH ANNUAL Diversity, Equity And Inclusion Conference ↗ Location: Brooklyn, NY, USAStart Date: June 8, 2023Category: HR, DEI SHRM Annual Conference & Expo 2023 ↗ Location: Las Vegas Convention Center, Las Vegas, NV, USAStart Date: June 11, 2023Category: HR TOTAL REWARDS ‘23 ↗ Location: San Diego, CA, USAStart Date: June 12, 2023Category: HR, Talent Management HRcoreREWARD ↗ Location: Hotel Porta Fira, Barcelona, SpainStart Date: June 14, 2023Category: HR‍Training & Development Summit ↗ Location: Radisson Hotel & Conference Centre, London, UKStart Date: June 19, 2023Category: HR‍4th Annual People Analytics & HR Data Conference ↗ Location: Eora, Sydney, AustraliaStart Date: June 21, 2023Category: People Analytics THE RICHMOND HUMAN RESOURCES FORUM ↗ Location: The Grove, Hertfordshire, UKStart Date: June 27, 2023Category: HR ‍Talent Management Reloaded Europe ↗ Location: Maritim Proarte, Berlin, GermanyStart Date: July 2, 2023Category: Talent Management‍‍2023 HR Florida Conference & Expo ↗ Location: Rosen Shingle Creek, Orlando, FL, USAStart Date: August 27, 2023Category: HR‍‍International Conference on Talent Acquisition and People Analytics ↗ Location: Prague, Czech RepublicStart Date: September 6, 2023Category: HR InspireHR 2023 ↗ Location:  Music City Center, Nashville, TN, USAStart Date: Fall 2023Category: HR HR Evolve ↗ Location:  Crown Conference Centre, Melbourne, AustraliaStart Date: September 7, 2023Category: HR‍HR Analytics Summit  ↗ Location:  The Barbican Centre, London, UKStart Date: September 8, 2023Category: HR TalentNEXT ↗ Location:  Hyatt Regency Savannah, Savannah, GA, USAStart Date: September 10, 2023Category: Talent Management Gartner ReimagineHR Conference - London, UK ↗ Location:  InterContinental London-The O2, London, UKStart Date: September 11, 2023Category: HR, Future of Work‍HRO Today Inclusion Summit ↗ Location:  Washington DC, USAStart Date: September 13, 2023Category: HR Inclusion The Future of Work Conference ↗ Location:  RDS Arena, Dublin, Ireland Start Date: September 14, 2023Category: HR, Workplace‍International Conference on Human Resources, Management, Strategies and Development ↗ Location: Zurich, SwitzerlandStart Date: September 16, 2023Category: HR ICHR 2023: 17. International Conference on Human Resources ↗‍Location:  Paris, FranceStart Date: September 20, 2023Category: HR‍Ohio SHRM 2023 HR Conference ↗‍Location:  Kalahari Resort & Virtual Kalahari Resorts & Conventions, Sandusky, OH, USAStart Date: September 20, 2023Category: HR‍HRtechX London 2023 ↗‍Location:  Copenhagen, DenmarkStart Date: September 25, 2023Category: HR Tech‍HR Summit London ↗‍Location:  Hilton London Canary Wharf, London, UKStart Date: September 28, 2023Category: HR‍ Maryland SHRM State Conference ↗‍Location:  Hyatt Regency Chesapeake Bay Golf Resort, Spa And Marina, Cambridge, MD, USAStart Date: October 1, 2023Category: HR CUPA HR 2023 ANNUAL CONFERENCE & EXPO ↗ Location:  Hyatt Regency New Orleans, New Orleans, LA, USAStart Date: October 1, 2023Category: HR Employee Benefits Live 2023 ↗ Location:  ExCeL London, UKStart Date: October 3, 2023Category: HR, Employee Engagement Western Cities Conference ↗ Location:  Fantasyland Hotel, Edmonton, CanadaStart Date: October 4, 2023Category: HR WI State SHRM Conference ↗ Location:  Kalahari Resort & Conference Center, Baraboo, WI, USAStart Date: October 10, 2023Category: HR HR Technology Conference & Expo ↗ Location: Mandalay Bay, Las Vegas, NV, USAStart Date: October 10, 2023Category: HR, HR Tech 30th Human Resource Summit ↗ Location:  Dolce CampoReal, Lisbon, PortugalStart Date: October 11, 2023Category: HR The HRSouthwest Conference ↗ Location:  Fort Worth Convention Center, Fort Worth, TX, USAStart Date: October 15, 2023Category: HR‍ Future of Work APAC ↗ Location:  Amora Hotel Jamison, Sydney, AustraliaStart Date: October 17, 2023Category: HR, Future of Work‍UNLEASH WORLD 2023 ↗ Location: Paris Expo Porte de Versailles, FranceStart Date: October 17, 2023Category: HR ICHRM 2023: 17. International Conference on Economics and Human Resource Management ↗ Location:  Rome, ItalyStart Date: October 18, 2023Category: HR HR2023 Arkansas SHRM ↗ Location:  Ft. Smith, AK, USAStart Date: October 18, 2023Category: HR 2023 MISHRM CONFERENCE & EXHIBITION ↗ Location:  Devos Place, Grand Rapids, MI, USAStart Date: October 18, 2023Category: HR SHRM INCLUSION 2023 ↗ Location: Savannah Convention Center, Savannah, GA, USAStart Date: October 30, 2023Category: HR Inclusion‍  Gartner ReimagineHR Conference - Sydney, Australia ↗ Location:  Hilton Sydney, AustraliaStart Date: December 4, 2023Category: HR, Future of Work

Sat, 13 May 2023

What to Expect from HR Certification Exam: Tips and Strategies
What to Expect from HR Certification Exam: Tips and Strategies
Understand the Exam FormatCreate a Study PlanUse Multiple ResourcesPractice, Practice, PracticeUnderstand Key ConceptsUse Memory TechniquesManage Your Time During the ExamStay Calm and FocusedIn conclusion, passing an HR certification exam requires preparation, focus, and determination. Understand the exam format, create a study plan, use multiple resources, practice, understand key concepts, use memory techniques, manage your time during the exam, and stay calm and focused. By following these tips and strategies, you'll be well on your way to passing your HR certification exam and advancing your career in HR. .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:'Poppins';letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SHRM-CP - 18 PRACTICE EXAMS 1000+ QUESTIONS SHRM BUNDLE SHRM-CP - 18 Practice Exams 1000+ Questions with detailed explanation - SHRM-SCP - 12 Practice Exams 800+ Questions - Added Questions Monthly - Updated -Access HR Library - 100+ HR books - Other useful resources - Only 9$ /monthly

Sat, 08 Apr 2023

The Cost of HR Certification: Is it Worth the Investment?
The Cost of HR Certification: Is it Worth the Investment?
Despite the cost, obtaining an HR certification can be a worthwhile investment for HR professionals. Here are some reasons why:However, it's essential to keep in mind that obtaining an HR certification does not guarantee career success. Certification is just one part of a successful HR career. HR professionals must also gain practical experience, develop critical thinking skills, and stay up-to-date with the latest trends and developments in their field.

Sat, 08 Apr 2023

All blogs