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NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 90
1. A client has been admitted to the nursing unit with the diagnosis of severe anemia. She is slightly short of breath, has episodes of dizziness, and complains her heart sometimes feels like it will 'beat out of her chest.' The physician has ordered her to receive 2 U of packed red blood cells. The most important nursing action to be taken is:
A) Starting an 18-gauge IV infusion
B) Having the consent form on the chart
C) Administering the correct blood product to the correctclient
D) Transfusing the blood in a 2-hour time frame
2. A client diagnosed with severe anemia is to receive 2 U of packed red blood cells. Prior to starting the blood transfusion, the nurse must:
A) Take a baseline set of vital signs
B) Hang Ringer - s lactate as the companion fluid
C) Use microdrip tubing for the blood administration
D) Have the registered nurse in charge assume responsibility for verifying the client and blood product information
3. A clients transfusion of packed red blood cells has been infusing for 2 hours. She is complaining of a raised, itchy rash and shortness of breath. She is wheezing, anxious, and very restless. The nurse knows these assessment findings are congruent with:
A) Hemolytic transfusion reaction
B) Febrile transfusion reaction
C) Circulatory overload
D) Allergic transfusion reaction
4. Diagnostic assessment findings for an infant with possible coarctation of the aorta would include:
A) A third heart sound
B) A diastolic murmur
C) Pulse pressure difference between the upper extremities
D) Diminished or absent femoral pulses
5. Decreased pulmonary blood flow, right-to-left shunting, and deoxygenated blood reaching the systemic circulation are characteristic of:
A) Tetralogy of Fallot
B) Ventricular septal defect
C) Patent ductus arteriosus
D) Transposition of the great arteries
A) Starting an 18-gauge IV infusion
B) Having the consent form on the chart
C) Administering the correct blood product to the correctclient
D) Transfusing the blood in a 2-hour time frame
2. A client diagnosed with severe anemia is to receive 2 U of packed red blood cells. Prior to starting the blood transfusion, the nurse must:
A) Take a baseline set of vital signs
B) Hang Ringer - s lactate as the companion fluid
C) Use microdrip tubing for the blood administration
D) Have the registered nurse in charge assume responsibility for verifying the client and blood product information
3. A clients transfusion of packed red blood cells has been infusing for 2 hours. She is complaining of a raised, itchy rash and shortness of breath. She is wheezing, anxious, and very restless. The nurse knows these assessment findings are congruent with:
A) Hemolytic transfusion reaction
B) Febrile transfusion reaction
C) Circulatory overload
D) Allergic transfusion reaction
4. Diagnostic assessment findings for an infant with possible coarctation of the aorta would include:
A) A third heart sound
B) A diastolic murmur
C) Pulse pressure difference between the upper extremities
D) Diminished or absent femoral pulses
5. Decreased pulmonary blood flow, right-to-left shunting, and deoxygenated blood reaching the systemic circulation are characteristic of:
A) Tetralogy of Fallot
B) Ventricular septal defect
C) Patent ductus arteriosus
D) Transposition of the great arteries
1. Right Answer: C
Explanation: (A) An 18-gauge IV is an appropriate size for administering blood; however, client safety demands that the right blood product must be administered. (B) The consent form is legally necessary to be on the chart, but client safety is maintained by giving the correct blood component to the correct client. (C) Administering the correct blood product to the correct client will maintain physiological safety and minimize transfusion reactions. (D) The blood administration should take place over the ordered time frame designated by the physician.
2. Right Answer: A
Explanation: (A) A baseline set of vital signs is necessary to determine if any transfusion reactions occur as the blood product is being administered. (B) The only companion fluid to be used during a blood transfusion is normal saline. The calcium in Ringers lactate can cause clotting. (C) Only a blood administration set should be used.A microdrip tube would cause lysis of the red blood cells. (D) Proper identification of the recipient and the blood product must be validated by at least two people.
3. Right Answer: D
Explanation: (A) A hemolytic transfusion reaction would be characterized by fever, chills, chest pain, hypotension, and tachypnea. (B) Fever, chills, and headaches are indicative of a febrile transfusion reaction. (C) Circulatory overload is manifest by dyspnea, cough, and pulmonary crackles. (D) Urticaria, pruritus, wheezing, and anxiety are indicative of an allergic transfusion reaction.
4. Right Answer: D
Explanation: (A) S1 and S2 in an infant with coarctation of the aorta are usually normal. S3 and S4 do not exist with this diagnosis. (B) Either no murmur will be heard or a systolic murmur from an associated cardiac defect will be heard along the left upper sternal border. A diastolic murmur is not associated with coarctation of the aorta. (C) Pulse pressure differences of>20 mm Hg exist between the upper extremities and the lower extremities. It is important to evaluate the upper and lower extremities with the appropriate- sized cuffs. (D) Femoral and pedal pulses will be diminished or absent in infants with coarctation of the aorta.
5. Right Answer: A
Explanation: (A) Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cyanotic heart defect, which includes a VSD, pulmonary stenosis, an overriding aorta, and ventricular hypertrophy. The blood flow is obstructed because the pulmonary stenosis decreases the pulmonary blood flow and shunts blood through the VSD, creating a right-to-left shunt that allows deoxygenated blood the reach the systemic circulation. (B) A VSD alone creates a left-to-right shunt. The pressure in the left ventricle is greater than that of the right; therefore, the blood will shunt from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, increasing the blood flow to the lungs. No deoxygenated blood will reach the systemic circulation. (C) In patent ductus arteriosus, the pressure in the aorta is greater than in the pulmonary artery, creating a left-to-right shunt. Oxygenated blood from the aorta flows into the unoxygenated blood of the pulmonary artery. (D) Transposition of the great arteries results in two separate and parallel circulatory systems. The only mixing or shunting of blood is based on the presence of associated lesions.
Explanation: (A) An 18-gauge IV is an appropriate size for administering blood; however, client safety demands that the right blood product must be administered. (B) The consent form is legally necessary to be on the chart, but client safety is maintained by giving the correct blood component to the correct client. (C) Administering the correct blood product to the correct client will maintain physiological safety and minimize transfusion reactions. (D) The blood administration should take place over the ordered time frame designated by the physician.
2. Right Answer: A
Explanation: (A) A baseline set of vital signs is necessary to determine if any transfusion reactions occur as the blood product is being administered. (B) The only companion fluid to be used during a blood transfusion is normal saline. The calcium in Ringers lactate can cause clotting. (C) Only a blood administration set should be used.A microdrip tube would cause lysis of the red blood cells. (D) Proper identification of the recipient and the blood product must be validated by at least two people.
3. Right Answer: D
Explanation: (A) A hemolytic transfusion reaction would be characterized by fever, chills, chest pain, hypotension, and tachypnea. (B) Fever, chills, and headaches are indicative of a febrile transfusion reaction. (C) Circulatory overload is manifest by dyspnea, cough, and pulmonary crackles. (D) Urticaria, pruritus, wheezing, and anxiety are indicative of an allergic transfusion reaction.
4. Right Answer: D
Explanation: (A) S1 and S2 in an infant with coarctation of the aorta are usually normal. S3 and S4 do not exist with this diagnosis. (B) Either no murmur will be heard or a systolic murmur from an associated cardiac defect will be heard along the left upper sternal border. A diastolic murmur is not associated with coarctation of the aorta. (C) Pulse pressure differences of>20 mm Hg exist between the upper extremities and the lower extremities. It is important to evaluate the upper and lower extremities with the appropriate- sized cuffs. (D) Femoral and pedal pulses will be diminished or absent in infants with coarctation of the aorta.
5. Right Answer: A
Explanation: (A) Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cyanotic heart defect, which includes a VSD, pulmonary stenosis, an overriding aorta, and ventricular hypertrophy. The blood flow is obstructed because the pulmonary stenosis decreases the pulmonary blood flow and shunts blood through the VSD, creating a right-to-left shunt that allows deoxygenated blood the reach the systemic circulation. (B) A VSD alone creates a left-to-right shunt. The pressure in the left ventricle is greater than that of the right; therefore, the blood will shunt from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, increasing the blood flow to the lungs. No deoxygenated blood will reach the systemic circulation. (C) In patent ductus arteriosus, the pressure in the aorta is greater than in the pulmonary artery, creating a left-to-right shunt. Oxygenated blood from the aorta flows into the unoxygenated blood of the pulmonary artery. (D) Transposition of the great arteries results in two separate and parallel circulatory systems. The only mixing or shunting of blood is based on the presence of associated lesions.
80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
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