Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 84
Questions 1. Neural tube defects in the fetus have been primarily associated with which deficiency in the mother?A) ironB) folic acidC) vitamin B12D) vitamin E2. Elderly persons with pernicious anemia should be instructed:A) to increase their dietary intake of foods high in B12.B) that they do not need to return for follow-up for at least a month after initiation of treatment.C) that oral B12 is safer and less expensive than parenteral replacement.D) that diarrhea can be a transient side effect of B12 injections.3. Which of the following should be included in a diet rich in iron?A) peaches, eggs, beefB) cereals, kale, cheeseC) red beans, enriched breads, squashD) legumes, green beans, eggs4. The presence of which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?A) estrogenB) progesteroneC) testosteroneD) human chorionic gonadotropin5. Increased cortisol levels might be found in a client with which condition?A) Cushing - s syndromeB) Addison - s diseaseC) renal failureD) congestive heart failure Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: Folic acid is essential for the development of the neural tube and might prevent the defect or failure of the tube to close (congenital anomalies). PhysiologicalAdaptation2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Pernicious anemia is a megaloblastic, macrocytic, normochronic anemia caused by a deficiency of the intrinsic factor produced by the stomach. This results in malabsorption of vitamin B12, which is necessary for DNA synthesis and maturation of RBC. Education should include side effects of Vitamin B12, which can include pain and burning at the injection site, peripheral vascular thrombosis, and transient diarrhea. Physiological Adaptation3. Right Answer: AExplanation: Home sources of iron that can be absorbed in the body include meat, poultry, and fish. In addition, these sources contain a factor that helps to enhance iron absorption of nonheme sources. Eating Vitamin C at the same time as iron sources also helps to promote iron absorption.High calcium intake in the diet promotes the absorption of iron because it helps to bind to phytates and thereby limits their effect. Physiological Adaptation4. Right Answer: DExplanation: Human chorionic gonadotropin is found in the urine during pregnancy and specifically indicates pregnancy. The other hormones do not. Reduction of RiskPotential5. Right Answer: AExplanation: Cushings syndrome produces elevated cortisol levels. Addisons disease produces decreased cortisol levels. The other conditions are not associated with cortisol levels. Reduction of Risk Potential .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 85
Questions 1. Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone?A) moving calcium from bones to the bloodstreamB) promoting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorusC) promoting renal tubular reabsorption of calciumD) enhancing renal production of vitamin D metabolites2. For which condition might a client - s antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level be increased?A) diabetes mellitusB) diabetes insipidusC) hypothyroidismD) hyperthyroidism3. Which of the following represents a normal serum potassium level?A) 1.5 mEq/LB) 3.0 mEq/LC) 4.0 mEq/LD) 6.0 mEq/L4. In alcoholics with anemia:A) pernicious anemia is more common than folic acid deficiency.B) iron deficiency and folic acid deficiency can coexist.C) the alcohol interferes with iron absorption.D) oral vitamin replacement is contraindicated.5. A female client complains to the nurse at the health department that she has fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. Her history reveals no significant medical problems. She states that she is always on a fad diet without any vitamin supplements. Which tests should the nurse expect the client to have first?A) peptic ulcer studiesB) complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobinC) genetic testingD) hemoglobin electrophoresis Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: Parathyroid hormone depresses renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus. All of the other choices are functions of parathyroid hormone. Reduction of RiskPotential2. Right Answer: BExplanation: ADH level is increased in the client with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Reduction of Risk Potential3. Right Answer: CExplanation: Normal serum potassium levels fall in a range of 3.55.5mEq/L. The other choices listed fall below or above this range. Reduction of Risk Potential4. Right Answer: BExplanation: The ingestion of nonfood substances (alcohol) can lead to a clinical iron deficiency and might actually be the first sign of a problem. The client might substitute alcohol for a nutrition program that fosters a positive health habit. Physiological Adaptation5. Right Answer: BExplanation: The initial tests to determine the basis for her symptoms (considering her fad dieting) should be a complete blood count, urinalysis, blood sugar, and other tests.The decision about further testing is then made based on these results, her history, and other factors. Physiological Adaptation .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 86
Questions 1. The nurse should consider which of the following as a possible cause for the symptoms experienced by the client in Question 28?A) iron deficiencyB) folate deficiencyC) peptic ulcerD) iron overload2. Which of the following viruses is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual?A) influenza virusB) herpes virusC) cytomegalovirus (CMV)D) human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)3. A female prostitute enters a clinic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease. This disease is the most prevalent STD in the United States. The nurse can anticipate that the woman has which of the following?A) herpesB) chlamydiaC) gonorrheaD) syphilis4. Nurses should understand the chain of infection because it refers to:A) the linkages between various forms of microorganisms.B) the sequence required for transmission of disease.C) the clustering of bacteria in a specific pattern.D) increasing virulence patterns among species of microorganisms.5. Which of the following microorganisms is easily transmitted from client to client on the hands of health care workers?A) mycobacterium tuberculosisB) clostridium tetaniC) staphylococcus aureusD) human immunodeficiency virus Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: Due to her symptoms of fatigue, shortness of breath, lightheadedness, her gender, and her fad dieting, the cause is most likely iron deficiency. PhysiologicalAdaptation2. Right Answer: AExplanation: Influenza virus is transmitted through respiratory droplets. Herpes virus is transmitted by direct contact, and HIV is transmitted through blood and body fluids.Cytomeglaovirus is an opportunistic infection. Physiological Adaptation3. Right Answer: BExplanation: Epidemiological studies indicate that chlamydia is the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the United States. Physiological Adaptation4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Infection occurs in a predictable sequence requiring virulence, movement from a reservoir, and entry into a susceptible host. Physiological Adaptation5. Right Answer: CExplanation: Staphylococcus aureus microorganisms are ubiquitous and easily transmitted by health care workers who fail to conduct routine hand washing between clients.Tuberculosis is almost always transmitted by the airborne route, and tetanus usually results from exposure to dirt. HIV is a weak virus that does not live long outside the body. Physiological Adaptation .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 87
Questions 1. Which of the following blood pressure parameters indicates PIH? Elevation over a baseline of:A) 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic.B) 40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.C) 10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic.D) 20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.2. When discussing possible complications of pregnancy with a client, the nurse should explain that all of the following are symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI).Which of the following is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy?A) low-back painB) urinary frequencyC) GI distressD) malaise3. When assessing a client in the Emergency Department whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse notes that the fluid is a greenish color. What is the cause of this greenish coloration?A) bloodB) meconiumC) hydramniosD) caput4. With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for which of the following?A) quickeningB) ophthalmia neonatorumC) picaD) prolapsed umbilical cord5. Which of the following diseases places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis?A) type I diabetesB) alcoholismC) leukemiaD) glaucoma Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: These are the accepted parameters for mild PIH. Mild preclampsia includes an increase in systolic blood pressure higher than 30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure higher than 15 mmHg, noted on two readings taken 6 hours apart (or 140/90). Physiological Adaptation2. Right Answer: BExplanation: Urinary frequency is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy because it is a common minor discomfort of pregnancy and is caused by pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. As the uterus rises in the second trimester, there are no problems. Frequency returns in the third trimester when the uterus drops into the pelvic cavity. A UTI has the symptoms of frequency, back pain, supra pubic discomfort, and malaise and is diagnosed by laboratory findings. PhysiologicalAdaptation3. Right Answer: BExplanation: Greenish amniotic fluid passed when the fetus is in a cephalic (head) presentation might indicate fetal distress. A fetus in the breech presentation passes meconium due to compression on the intestinal tract. Physiological Adaptation4. Right Answer: DExplanation: Prolapsed umbilical cord is the descent of the umbilical cord into the vagina before the fetal presenting part and compression of the cord between the presenting part and the maternal pelvis, compromising or completely cutting off fetoplacental perfusion. This is an emergency situation; immediate delivery should be attempted to save the fetus. Physiological Adaptation5. Right Answer: BExplanation: Alcoholism places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis. None of the other choices are related to cirrhosis. Physiological Adaptation .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 88
Questions 1. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for the client experiencing acute pancreatitis?A) ConfusionB) Latex AllergyC) Acute PainD) Constipation2. Which of the following is not a primary function of the kidneys?A) blood pressure controlB) vitamin D activationC) erythropoietin productionD) reabsorbing waste products3. A client with urinary tract calculi needs to avoid which of the following foods?A) lettuceB) cheeseC) applesD) broccoli4. Which type of exercises might be prescribed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles of a client with urinary incontinence?A) KegelB) resistanceC) passiveD) stretching5. A standard walker is used when clients:A) have poor balance, cannot stand up, have weak arms, and have good hand strength.B) have poor balance, have a broken leg, or have experienced amputation.C) have poor balance, have cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane.D) have poor balance, have an autoimmune disease, or have weak arms. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Acute Pain is most appropriate for the client experiencing acute pancreatitis. Physiological Adaptation2. Right Answer: DExplanation: All of the choices are functions of the kidneys except reabsorbing waste products. The kidneys excrete waste products. Physiological Adaptation3. Right Answer: BExplanation: The client with urinary tract calculi needs to avoid cheese, which has high calcium content. The other foods do not. Physiological Adaptation4. Right Answer: AExplanation: Kegel exercises might be prescribed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles of a client with urinary incontinence. Physiological Adaptation5. Right Answer: CExplanation: A walker is used for clients who have balance problems, cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane. The client needs to bear partial weight and have strength in her wrists and arms. The client uses her upper body to propel the walker forward. Basic Care and Comfort .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 89
Questions 1. Safety measures for using crutches must be taught to clients. Safety measures for the use of crutches include:A) properly fitting crutches with rubber tips at the end that provide a four-point gait.B) properly fitting crutches, education in the appropriate gait, and strength in the arms.C) crutches that fit the way the client chooses and a gait chosen by client.D) both legs touching the floor for all gaits.2. The hydraulic lift (Hoyer lift) is:A) used for all clients who - ve had orthopedic surgery.B) used for all clients who are not able to stand and for extremity obese clients.C) used for all clients, both old and young, in a hospital setting.D) not an assistive device for special needs.3. An 80-year-old aphasic CVA client had abdominal surgery 2 days ago. Which of the following puts this client at the highest risk for inadequate pain management?A) inability to turn, cough, and breathe deeplyB) inability to communicate painC) inability to ambulate freelyD) inability to use a bedside commode4. A client is to have an enema to reduce flatus. The enema tube should be inserted:A) 4 inches.B) 6 inches.C) 2 inches.D) 8 inches.5. A client with cirrhosis of the liver presents with ascites. The physician is to perform a parancentesis. For safety, the nurse should ask the client to:A) drink 1000 cc prior to the procedure to affect fluid loss.B) eat foods low in fat.C) empty his bladder prior to the procedure.D) assume the prone position. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: In addition to the rubber tips on the ends of the crutches, the client needs to know the appropriate gait. Arm strength exercises are important, and it is critical that the client be fitted properly for the crutches. Basic Care and Comfort2. Right Answer: BExplanation: The hydraulic lift is used for safe transfer when a client is not able to stand or is too heavy for the health care workers to lift safely. Basic Care and Comfort3. Right Answer: BExplanation: The client cannot speak to alert the nurse to his pain state. The nurse needs to provide alternate methods of communication with the client. Basic Care andComfort4. Right Answer: AExplanation: Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter. Two inches is not far enough to pass the internal sphincter. Both 6 and 8 inches are too far and might cause trauma to the bowel. Basic Care and Comfort5. Right Answer: CExplanation: When performing a parancentesis, the client must be sitting up to allow the fluid to settle to the lower abdomen. To prevent trauma to the bladder while inserting a needle to aspirate the fluid, the bladder must be empty. Basic Care and Comfort .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 90
Questions 1. A spinal change occurring with pregnancy that alters mobility is:A) scoliosis.B) kyphosis.C) lordosis.D) ankylosing spondylitis.2. Physical examination of a client regarding mobility status should:A) begin with gait.B) be oriented to time, place, and person.C) begin with the Romberg test.D) begin with the Tandem Walk test.3. The nurse is turning a client who has a new prosthetic hip. Which position should be avoided to prevent injury to the new prosthetic hip?A) abduction of the hipB) adduction of the hipC) flexing the hip at 80° flexionD) flexing the hip at 90°4. Nail and foot care are essential in meeting basic hygiene needs of clients. Important assessments by the nurse in this area include:A) all body assessment, including the feet and nails.B) the essential lab work of the client.C) the nail beds and the tissue surrounding the nails.D) foot corns and calluses only.5. For a client requiring total oral care, it is important for the nurse to:A) assemble all equipment, assist the client tosemi-Fowler - s position, and place a towel on his chest.B) place client in Fowler - s position, prepare the equipment, and tell the client what to do.C) assemble all equipment, place the client in a side-lying position, and place a towel under his chin.D) use gloves and clean the client - s mouth, including the tongue. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: The spinal change occurring with pregnancy is lordosis. This occurs due to the weight of the enlarging uterus and the affect of gravity. Basic Care and Comfort2. Right Answer: AExplanation: Gait is usually assessed as the client walks into the room. Normal gait is smooth, flowing, and rhythmic without assistive devices. Basic Care and Comfort3. Right Answer: BExplanation: New prosthetic hips should have an abduction pillow in place to avoid adduction. Basic Care and Comfort4. Right Answer: CExplanation: The nail beds and the tissue surrounding the nails should be assessed for abnormal discoloration, lesions, paronychia (infection of tissue surrounding the nail), tissue dryness, breaks in the skin, pressure areas, or other abnormal appearances. Basic Care and Comfort5. Right Answer: CExplanation: Assemble all equipment first; place the client in a side-lying position so that fluid can easily flow out or pool in the side of the mouth for suctioning (to prevent aspiration); and then place a towel under the clients chin and a curved basin against the chin. Gloves should be worn. Basic Care and Comfort .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 91
Questions 1. Client room environments should include:A) a made bed, fresh water, thermostat regulation, and clean floors in all occupied client areas.B) a made bed, comfort and safety, a clutter-free area, hygiene articles nearby.C) accident prevention, comfort, a room (including furniture) that has been cleaned with chloroseptic wash, a bed that is made every other day.D) odor control (by spraying the room with deodorizers), closet storage of all client objects, a clean room. (Gloves should be worn when cleaning.)2. When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:A) 'Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.'B) 'Fertility couseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6 - 9 months of unprotected intercourse.'C) 'The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 51â?2 months, so if you haven - t conceived by then, we can refer you.'D) 'We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn - t happen within a year.'3. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?A) hysterosalpingographyB) semen analysisC) endometrial biopsyD) transvaginal ultrasound4. Which of the following actions should a nurse take first for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood?A) Document the vomiting.B) Increase the IV fluids.C) Get a complete blood count.D) Check the blood pressure.5. Which of the following statements indicates adequate dietary understanding in a client with constipation?A) 'I should decrease my intake of fluids.'B) 'I should decrease my level of activity.'C) 'I should increase my intake of apples.'D) 'I should increase my intake of milk.' Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: Preparing a clients room environment should include making the clients bed, ensuring comfort and safety at all times, keeping the area free of clutter, and keeping the clients hygiene articles nearby. All procedures should be explained before they are performed, and the client should assist with personal arrangement of articles. Basic Care and Comfort2. Right Answer: DExplanation: The guidelines for a fertility workup are to refer after the couple has not conceived after one year of unprotected intercourse. So, Choice 1 is technically correct, but it doesnt consider the immediate need for the couple to have some counseling. Choice 4 is the best answer because it gives the couple guidance now and the referral at the appropriate time. If the woman is over the age of 35, an earlier referral, at six to nine months of unprotected intercourse, is appropriate. It is true that the average time it takes a 25-year-old woman to conceive is 5.3 months, but that does not address the concern the client is expressing. Choice 4 is still the most caring and correct answer. Couples conceive within the first month of unprotected intercourse 20% of the time. Health Promotion and Maintenance3. Right Answer: BExplanation: Because semen analysis is the least invasive of the tests listed and because in 35% of the cases the infertility is related to a male factor, semen analysis should be one of the first diagnostic tests performed. Hysterosalpingography fills the uterus and fallopian tubes with a radiopaque substance that can be seen with an X ray. It demonstrates tubal patency or any distortion of the uterine cavity. Endometrial biopsy provides information about the effects of progesterone after ovulation and the endometrial receptivity. Transvaginal ultrasound is mostly used in the treatment of infertility. For diagnosis it allows the endocrinologist to evaluate the developing follicle, assess oocyte maturity, and diagnose luteal phase defects. All the tests listed in Choices 1, 3, and 4 are more invasive, require greater expertise to evaluate and treat, and are more costly. If the semen analysis is normal, the couple can expect to progress through these tests as well. HealthPromotion and Maintenance4. Right Answer: DExplanation: The blood pressure should be checked first for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood, to determine whether the client is hypotensive. The other actions can be taken later. Reduction of Risk Potential5. Right Answer: CExplanation: Apples are a source of high fiber, which decreases constipation. A constipated client needs to increase fluids and activity level. Milk is not a high-fiber food.Reduction of Risk Potential .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 92
Questions 1. Which cultural group has the highest incidence of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?A) AsiansB) CaucasiansC) HispanicsD) African Americans2. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for a client with a new colostomy?A) Excess Fluid VolumeB) Risk for AspirationC) Disturbed Body ImageD) Urinary Retention3. Which of the following foods can cause diarrhea when eaten by a client with an ileostomy?A) eggsB) coffeeC) fishD) garlic4. In infants and children, the side effects of firstgeneration over-the counter (OTC) antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and hydroxyzine (Atarax), can include:A) Reye - s syndrome.B) cholinergic effects.C) paradoxical CNS stimulation.D) nausea and diarrhea.5. The nurse can promote relief of muscle pain, spasms, and tension by:A) having the client continue his activities as usual.B) immobilizing the client.C) applying heat, cold, pressure, or vibration to the painful area.D) giving as much pain medication as needed to ease the muscle. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: Caucasians have the highest incidence of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Reduction of Risk Potential2. Right Answer: CExplanation: Disturbed Body Image is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with a new colostomy, due to the adjustments that need to be made with the physical alteration of a colostomy. The other diagnoses are not applicable. Reduction of Risk Potential3. Right Answer: BExplanation: Coffee might cause diarrhea in a client with an ileostomy. The other foods might cause odor. Reduction of Risk Potential4. Right Answer: CExplanation: Typically, first-generation OTC antihistamines have a sedating effect because of passage into the CNS. However, in some individuals, especially infants and children, paradoxical CNS stimulation occurs and is manifested by excitement, euphoria, restlessness, and confusion. For this reason, use of first-generation OTC antihistamines has declined and second-generation product use has increased. Reyes syndrome is a systemic response to a virus. First-generation OTC antihistamines do not exhibit a cholinergic effect. Nausea and diarrhea are uncommon with first-generation OTC antihistamines. Pharmacological Therapies5. Right Answer: CExplanation: Superficial heat and cold, massage, pressure, or vibration can be applied to alleviate pain associated with muscle tension, pain, or spasms. NonpharmacologicalTherapies .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
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