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NCLEX-RN Exam Questions  - Part 57

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 57

Questions 1. A 2-month-old infant is receiving IV fluids with a volume control set. The nurse uses this type of tubing because it:A) Prevents administration of other drugsB) Prevents entry of air into tubingC) Prevents inadvertent administration of a large amount of fluidsD) Prevents phlebitis2. Which type of insulin can be administered by a continuous IV drip?A) Humulin NB) NPH insulinC) Regular insulinD) Lente insulin3. A physicians order reads: Administer furosemide oral solution 0.5 mL stat. The furosemide bottle dosage is 10 mg/mL. What dosage of furosemide should the nurse give to this infant?A) 5 mgB) 0.5 mgC) 0.05 mgD) 20 mg4. A physicians order reads: Administer KCl 10% oral solution 1.5 mL. The KCl bottle reads 20 mEq/15 mL.What dosage should the nurse administer to the infant?A) 1 mEqB) 1.13 mEqC) 2 mEqD) Not enough information to calculate5. A 1000-mL dose of lactated Ringers solution is to be infused in 8 hours. The drop factor for the tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many drops per minute should the nurse administer?A) 125 gtt/minB) 48 gtt/minC) 20 gtt/minD) 21 gtt/min Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) A volume control set has a chamber that permits the administration of compatible drugs. (B) Air may enter a volume control set when tubing is not adequately purged. (C) A volume control set allows the nurse to control the amount of fluid administered over a set period. (D) Contamination of volume control set may cause phlebitis.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Humulin N cannot be administered IV. (B) NPH insulin cannot be administered IV. (C) Regular insulin is the only insulin that can be administered IV. (D) Lente insulin cannot be administered IV.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) 1 mg = 0.1 mL, then 0.5 mL X= 55 mg. (B) Thisanswer is a miscalculation. (C) This answer is a miscalculation. (D) This answer is a miscalculation.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) This answer is a miscalculation. (B) This answer is a miscalculation. (C) 1.33 mEq = 1 mL, then 1.5 mL X=1.99, or 2 mEq. (D) Information is adequate for calculation.5. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) This answer is a miscalculation. (B) This answer is a miscalculation. (C) This answer has not been rounded off to an even number. (D) 20.8, or 21 gtt/min. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

PHR Exam Questions  - Part 9

Created by - Jenny Clarke

PHR Exam Questions - Part 9

Questions 1. Jennifer is the HR Professional for her organization. Her supervisor, Dan, has asked Jennifer to find the Compa-ratio for Sam. Sam earns $40,000 as a mechanic, but the midpoint for a mechanic is actually $50,000. What is the Compa-ratio for Sam?A) ($10,000)B) 80 percentC) 125 percentD) $10,000 2. You are a HR Professional for your organization. You have presented an idea to your staff. The staff members then discuss their ideas based on your presentation. All of the ideas are recorded and collectively ranked from most important to least important (or some other ordinal scale). Through this process a selection or forecast can be made for the organization. What forecasting technique have you used in this scenario?A) Nominal group techniqueB) Ratio analysisC) BrainstormingD) Delphi Technique3. Which of the following are narrative methods of appraisal that require managers to describe the employee's performance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.(Select 3answers)A) Daily reviewB) Field reviewC) Essay reviewD) Critical incident review4. There are seven stages of internal consulting that an HR Professional must be familiar with. Consider this scenario: Frances has developed an HR training plan for her organization. The plan is comprehensive, aggressive, and will provide organizational development for all levels of employees in the company. Frances is presenting her plan to her organization's management. What level of internal consulting is Fran participating in?A) Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the projectB) Gaining agreement to the project planC) Presenting the findings and recommendationsD) Exploring the situation5. Heather's organization works with a labor union work force. Heather has heard rumors that the union has been trying to create a hot cargo agreement with a supplier. What is a hot cargo agreement?A) It's an agreement that an employer will stop doing business with a non-union business.B) It's a threat that the union will slow down processing orders for non-union shops.C) It's an agreement to rush orders for union-based businesses.D) It forces suppliers to join the union. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-RN Exam Questions  - Part 58

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 58

Questions 1. A 1000-mL dose of D5W 12 normal saline is to be infused in 8 hours. The drop factor for the tubing is 60 gtt/min. How many drops per minute should the nurse administer?A) 75 gtt/minB) 100 gtt/minC) 125 gtt/minD) 150 gtt/min2. A physicians order reads: 0.25 normal saline at 50 mL/hr until discontinued. The nurse is using a microdrip tubing set. How many drops per minute should the nurse administer?A) 1 gtt/minB) 5 gtt/minC) 50 gtt/minD) 100 gtt/min3. A 6-year-old child is attending a pediatric clinic for a routine examination. What should the nurse assess for while conducting a vision screening?A) Hearing testB) GaitC) StrabismusD) Papilledema4. An 11-year-old boy has received a partial-thickness burn to both legs. He presents to the emergency room approximately 15 minutes after the accident in excruciating pain with charred clothing to both legs. What is the first nursing action?A) Apply ice packs to both legs.B) Begin débridement by removing all charred clothing from wound.C) Apply Silvadene cream (silver sulfadiazine).D) Immerse both legs in cool water.5. A burn victim - s immunization history is assessed by the nurse. Which immunization is of priority concern?A) Oral poliovirus vaccineB) Inactivated poliovirus vaccineC) Tetanus toxoidD) Hepatitis B vaccine Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) This answer is a miscalculation. (B) This answer is a miscalculation. (C)125 gtt/min. (D) This answer is a miscalculation.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) This answer is a miscalculation. (B) This answer is a miscalculation. (C)50 gtt/min. (D) This answer is a miscalculation.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Hearing should be assessed separately. (B) Gait should be assessed separately. Client usually remains in one place for vision screening. Gait is part of neurological assessment. (C) Strabismus is crossing of eyes or outward deviation, which may cause diplopia or ambylopia. It is easily assessed during vision screening. (D) Papilledema is assessed by an ophthalmoscopic examination, which follows vision screening. It is part of neurological assessment.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Ice creates a dramatic temperature change in the tissue, which can cause further thermal injury. (B) Charred clothing should not be removed from wound first.This creates further tissue damage. Dbridement is not the first nursing action. (C) Applying silver sulfadiazine cream first insulates heat in injured tissue and increases potential for infection. (D) Emergency care of a thermal burn is immersing both legs in cool water. Cool water permits gradual temperature change and prevents further thermal damage.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Oral poliovirus vaccine is given to prevent polio. Polio is transmitted by direct contact with an infected person. (B) Inactivated poliovirus vaccine is given to adults and immunosuppressed individuals. Polio is transmitted by direct contact with an infected person. (C) Tetanus toxoid prevents tetanus. Tetanus is transmitted through contaminated wounds. (D) Hepatitis B vaccine prevents hepatitis B infection. Hepatitis B is transmitted through contact with infected blood or body fluids. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

PHR Exam Questions  - Part 10

Created by - Jenny Clarke

PHR Exam Questions - Part 10

Questions 1. Sexual harassment is a form of sex discrimination and it is illegal in the US based on what law?A) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964B) ADA and Rehabilitation Act of 2008C) ADEA of 1967D) Fair Labor Standards Act of 19582. As a HR Professional you must understand the laws and regulations, which affect employee compensation. Which of the following was the first to address sanitary working conditions?A) Walsh-Healey Public Contracts ActB) Portal-to-Portal ActC) Davis-Bacon ActD) Fair Labor Standards Act3. As an HR Professional you must be familiar with several laws and pieces of legislation that affects your practices. What act makes it illegal to discriminate against older workers with respect to benefits or to target older workers for layoffs?A) OWBPAB) OASDIC) HIPAAD) MHPA4. Your organization employees 475 people and you are the HR Professional for the organization. You're teaching your staff about the EEOC laws and the rights your employees have under these laws. In your state what term is assigned by the EEOC to the local offices that enforcethe EEOC laws and any local or state anti-discrimination laws?A) Labor officesB) Workers Rights AgenciesC) Fair Employment Practices AgenciesD) EEOC offices5. You are the HR Professional for your organization. You're leading a presentation on equal employment opportunity terminology for your staff. Beth, a staff member, wants to know what a charge is -in regard to equal employment opportunity. What is a charge?A) A charge is the documentation of an alleged unlawful discrimination.B) A charge is an individual that has lodged a formal complaint to an agency that alleges unlawful discrimination.C) A charge is the evidence that unlawful discrimination has occurred.D) A charge is a formal complaint submitted to an agency that alleges unlawful discrimination. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-RN Exam Questions  - Part 59

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 59

Questions 1. A newborn has been delivered with a meningomyelocele. The nursery nurse should position the newborn:A) ProneB) SupineC) Side lyingD) Semi-Fowler2. Nursing care of the infant prior to surgical closure of a meningomyelocele would include:A) Cover sac with dry sterile dressingB) Cover sac with saline-soaked sterile dressingC) Do not apply dressing; keep sac open to airD) Aspirate any fluid from sac3. A 35-year-old client is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis. Results of arterial blood gases are pH 7.2, PaO2 90, PaCO2 45, and HCO3 16. The nursing assessment of arterial blood gases indicate the presence of:A) Respiratory alkalosisB) Respiratory acidosisC) Metabolic alkalosisD) Metabolic acidosis4. A client presents to the emergency room with cyanosis, coughing, tachypnea, and tachycardia. She has a history of asthma. Arterial blood gas values are pH 7.28,PaO2 54, PaCO2 60, and HCO3 24. The nursing assessment of arterial blood gases indicate the presence of:A) Respiratory alkalosisB) Respiratory acidosisC) Metabolic alkalosisD) Metabolic acidosis5. A 40-year-old client is admitted to the coronary care unit with chest pain and shortness of breath. The physician diagnosed an anterior wall myocardial infarction.What tests should the nurse anticipate?A) Reticulocyte count, creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)B) Aspartate transaminase, alanine transaminaseC) Sedimentation rate, WBC countD) Lactic dehydrogenase, CPK Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) The prone position reduces pressure and tension on the sac. Primary nursing goals are to prevent trauma and infection of the sac. (B) The supine position exerts pressure on the sac. (C) Newborns usually cannot maintain side-lying position. (D) The semi- Fowler position exerts pressure on the sac.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) A dry, sterile dressing would adhere to the sac, causing tissue damage. (B) A saline-soaked sterile dressing protects the sac from contamination by air and prevents drying. (C) A sac open to air causes drying and potential for contamination. (D) This intervention is not an independent nursing action.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Respiratory alkalosis is determined by elevated pH and low PaCO2. (B) Respiratory acidosis is determined by low pH and elevated PaCO2. (C) Metabolic alkalosis is determined by elevated pH and HCO3.(D) Metabolic acidosis is determined by low pH and HCO3.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Respiratory alkalosis is determined by elevated pH and low PaCO2. (B) Respiratory acidosis is determined by low pH and elevated PaCO2. (C) Metabolic alkalosis is determined by elevated pH and HCO3. (D) Metabolic acidosis is determined by low pH and HCO3.5. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Reticulocyte count measures the number of immature erythrocytes. CPK is an enzyme released from injured myocardial tissue. (B) Aspartate transaminase is an enzyme released from injured myocardial tissue. Alanine transaminase is an enzyme released for general tissue destruction, which is specific for liver injury.(C) Sedimentation rate is a nonspecific test for inflammation. (D) Lactic dehydrogenase and CPK are enzymes released from injured myocardial tissue. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

PHR Exam Questions  - Part 11

Created by - Jenny Clarke

PHR Exam Questions - Part 11

Questions 1. Organizational functions, according to Fayol, conform to one of the six functional areas. Which one of the following is not an area of organizational functions for strategic planning?A) Sales and marketingB) Financial activitiesC) Human resource managementD) Technical activities2. Which one of the following is the best example of a disparate treatment of discrimination?A) All project team members are asked to take turns keeping meeting minutes in a rotation.B) The meeting minutes will be kept by both men and women in a rotation.C) The meeting minutes will be kept by female members of the project team because they have neater handwriting.D) All junior project team members are required to take turns keeping meeting minutes in a rotation.3. The Department of Labor establishes the rules for unemployment insurance and associated claims. Who administers the unemployment?A) Each organizationB) The Department of LaborC) Insurance companiesD) Each state4. Fred is a union employee who has been summoned by the management to an investigatory hearing regarding his conduct. Fred would like to have a union representative with him at the meeting. What is the name of the right that allows Fred to have a union representative with him at the meeting?A) Management RightsB) Bumping RightC) Right of WayD) Weingarten Right5. When an individual files a charge of discrimination with the EEOC against an employer, what will the EEOC do?A) The EEOC will create a hearing with the complainant and the employer to investigate the charge.B) The EEOC will visit the employer to inform them of the charge.C) The EEOC will investigate the claim by inspecting the employer's place of business.D) The EEOC will send the employer a letter informing them of the charge. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-RN Exam Questions  - Part 60

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 60

Questions 1. The nurse needs to be aware that the most common early complication of a myocardial infarction is:A) Diabetes mellitusB) Anaphylactic shockC) Cardiac hypertrophyD) Cardiac dysrhythmia2. A client is being treated for congestive heart failure. His medical regimen consists of digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg po daily and furosemide 20 mg po bid. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor?A) Intake and outputB) CalciumC) PotassiumD) Magnesium3. In the coronary care unit, a client has developed multifocal premature ventricular contractions. The nurse should anticipate the administration of:A) FurosemideB) NitroglycerinC) LidocaineD) Digoxin4. A client has received digoxin 0.25 mg po daily for 2 weeks. Which of the following digoxin levels indicates toxicity?A) 0.5 ng/mLB) 1.0 ng/mLC) 2.0 ng/mLD) 3.0 ng/mL5. A client has developed congestive heart failure secondary to his myocardial infarction. Discharge diet instructions should emphasize the reduction or avoidance of:A) Fresh vegetables and fruitB) Canned vegetables and fruitC) Breads, cereals, and riceD) Fish Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Diabetes mellitus is not a common complication of myocardial infarction. (B) Anaphylactic shock is an allergic reaction. (C) Cardiac hypertrophy is a late potential complication. It is a common complication of congestive heart failure. (D) Myocardial infarction causes tissue damage, which may interrupt electrical impulses. Myocardial irritability results from lack of oxygenated tissue.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Intake and output are not laboratory tests. (B) Serum calcium levels are not affected by digoxin or furosemide. (C) Furosemide is a nonpotassium-sparing loop diuretic. Hypokalemia is a common side effect of furosemide and may enhance digoxin toxicity. (D) Serum magnesium levels are not affected by digoxin or furosemide.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Furosemide is a loop diuretic. (B) Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator. (C) Lidocaine is the drug of choice to treat ectopic ventricular beats. (D) Digoxin slows down the electrical impulses and increases ventricular contractions, but it does not rapidly correct ventricular ectopy.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) 0.5 ng/mL of digoxin is a subtherapeutic level, not a toxic one. (B) 1.0 ng/mL is a therapeutic level. (C) 2.0 ng/mL is a therapeutic level. (D) Digoxins therapeutic level is 0.82.0 ng/mL. Digoxins toxic level is >2.0 ng/mL.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Fresh vegetables and fruits are excellent sources of essential vitamins. (B) Canned and frozen foods have a high sodium content. Labels of all canned foods should be read to determine if sodium is used in any form. (C) Bread, cereal, and rice are excellent sources of carbohydrates. (D) Fish is an excellent source of protein. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

PHR Exam Questions  - Part 12

Created by - Jenny Clarke

PHR Exam Questions - Part 12

Questions 1. Yolanda is an HR Professional for her organization that has 250 employees. Yolanda is working with Thomas, a manager in the company. Thomas reports thatCarrie, one of his staff members, will be leaving the organization for a leave absence due to a pregnancy issue. Thomas wants to know if he can terminate Carrie's employment because she won't be able to complete her work due to the pregnancy issue. What's the best answer for this scenario?A) Yolanda should tell Thomas that Carrie must return to work within 28 days or the organization can assume that Carrie has resigned.B) Yolanda should tell Thomas that Carrie's employment can be terminated as pregnancy issues are not allowable time away from the organization.C) Yolanda should tell Thomas that Carrie's employment can be terminated as the organization does not meet the Pregnancy Discrimination Act with 500 minimum employees.D) Yolanda should tell Thomas that Carrie must be treated the same way as any other temporarily disabled employee.2. Your organization is aiming to reduce costs by stopping wastes in the production cycle. The company has created a plan that will reward employees 50 percent of the savings from the waste stoppage. What type of compensation plan is your organization offering to employees in this instance?A) This is an example of a team incentiveB) This is an example of profit sharingC) This is an example of gainsharingD) This is an example of a short-term incentive3. What is the compa-ratio for an employee that earns $75,000 per year, but the midpoint for the role is $85,000 per year?A) $10,000 differenceB) 1:88C) 113 percentD) 88 percent4. As a HR Professional you must understand the laws and regulations, which affect employee compensation. If a non-exempt employee works more than 40 hours per week, what is their overtime pay rate?A) 150 percent of their base payB) It depends on the state where the employee is employedC) Non-exempt employees do not receive overtime payD) 50 percent of their base pay5. If a union wants to organize, it typically moves through five steps to the organizing process. Which step of union organization would require the union to collect at least 30 percent of signed authorization cards from employees?A) Confirm interestB) The campaignC) Make a connectionD) Obtain recognition Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

NCLEX-RN Exam Questions  - Part 61

Created by - Jenny Clarke

NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 61

Questions 1. A client takes warfarin (Coumadin) 15 mg po daily. To evaluate the medication - s effectiveness, the nurse should monitor the:A) prothrombin time (PT)B) partial thromboplastin time (PTT)C) PTT-CD) Fibrin split products2. Prior to administering digoxin to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse needs to assess:A) Respiratory rate for 1 minuteB) Radial pulse for 1 minuteC) Radial pulse for 2 minutesD) Apical pulse for 1 minute3. A client is diagnosed with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. He is placed in respiratory isolation, intubated, and receives mechanical ventilation. When performing suctioning, the nurse should:A) Suction for a maximum of 20 secondsB) Hyperoxygenate before and after suctioningC) Suction for a maximum of 30 secondsD) Maintain clean technique during suctioning4. The physician prescribes a medical regimen of isoniazid, rifampin, and vitamin B6 for a tuberculosis client. The nurse instructs the client that B6 is given because it:A) Increases activity of isoniazidB) Increases activity of rifampinC) Improves nutritional statusD) Reduces peripheral neuropathy5. Which of the following nursing actions is essential to prevent drug-resistant tuberculosis?A) Monitor liver function.B) Monitor renal function.C) Assess knowledge of respiratory isolation.D) Monitor compliance with drug therapy. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) PT evaluates adequacy of extrinsic clotting pathway. Adequacy of warfarin therapy is monitored by PT. (B) PTT evaluates adequacy of intrinsic clotting pathway. Adequacy of heparin therapy is monitored by PTT. (C) There is no such laboratory test. (D) Fibrin split products indicate fibrinolysis. This is a screening test for disseminated intravascular coagulation. Heparin therapy may increase fibrin split products.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Respiratory rate is not directly affected by digoxin therapy. (B) A radial pulse is not as accurate as an apical pulse. Dysrhythmias may not be detected. (C) A radial pulse is not as accurate as an apical pulse, regardless of assessment time. (D) Apical pulse should be measured for 1-minute prior to digoxin administration.Digoxin decreases the heart rate. Digoxin should be withheld if apical rates are 120 bpm.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) The maximum time for suctioning is 1015 seconds. (B) Supplemental O2should be administered before and after suctioning to reduce hypoxia. (C) The maximum time for suctioning is 1015 seconds. (D) Strict sterile technique should be used during suctioning.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Vitamin B6does not enhance the activity of isoniazid. (B) Vitamin B6does not enhance the activity of rifampin. (C) A vitamin alone does not improve nutritional status. (D) Isoniazid leads to Vitamin B6deficiency, which is manifested as peripheral neuropathy.5. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Monitoring liver function will not prevent the development of drug-resistant organisms. (B) Monitoring renal function will not prevent the development of drug- resistant organisms. (C) Knowledge of respiratory isolation will reduce transmission of tuberculosis but will not prevent development of drug-resistant organisms.(D) Noncompliance with prescribed antituberculosis drug regimen is the primary cause of drug-resistant organisms. Noncompliance permits the mutation of organisms. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS

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Published - Thu, 23 Feb 2023

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